Palindrome in another thread entitled "brahma rakshas in ramayana" which is closed now had raised some issues regarding tantras. This post seeks to reply to the said post:
How does Agama translate into Shiva replying to Parvati and Nigama to Parvati replying to Shiva? Is this classification universal? If so who is the authority?
Again a lot of IMO stuff. But questions about “yamalas”. What is the origin and etymology of the word “Yamala”? Is there only one yamala? If there are various yamalas, which is the fore runner amongst them? If Yamala is a class of tantras as the poster has suggested, what are the other classes of tantras called?
Was tantra a method of worship or was it a culture according to the author?
In what language is the mantra, method of worship etc. recorded? If it is in Sanskrit in original, why were the mantras composed in a non tribal language? If on the other hand, the mantras in Sanskrit are translation of some other original works, which is the language in which the original works were composed?
Once again IMO stuff.
In what manner is the word “agama” used here? You mean the agama texts (that is those tantras based on Siva replying to Parvati accepted the authority of dharmashastras? And the others, viz. nigama and samhita did not accept?
If agama is a tantra, as you have been saying so far, where does the “idol” worship come in here? Is not the tantras a type of worship involving yantras, viz. geometrical shaped objects?
Which poorva meemamsa priests absorbed which native deities in their fold? Some pointers please!!
Once again IMO stuff.
Unless you give the origins of shaman traditions, this has to be categorized as IMO stuff.
Awaiting the recovery of your book for you to quote how Adi Sankara gave an irrelevant bhashyam to some sutras in brahma sutras.
66 years since independence is more than sufficient for a representative government interested in knowing and preserving its culture, at least to catalogue the different tantrasIn India, no one knows how many tantras exist.
All IMO stuff. One can hold any opinion one wants.Some say 64 shakta agamas exist based on a verse from saundaryalahiri. But IMO 64 is the number of vaidika agamas. Nobody has counted how many avaidika agamas exist. Vaidika agamas accept svadharma and the suzerainty of dharmashastras; whilst avaidika agamas do not.
There must have been fights between different tribal cultures; such that those which did not accept authority of dharmashastras remained avaidika agamas.
What is the origin of the words, agama, nigama and samhita and what is its etymology according to the poster? Is it Sanskrit or any other indo European or proto indio European language? If the word is a loan word to Sanskrit from another language, which is the loaner or source language?Though the texts are divided into Agama (Shiva replying to Parvati), Nigama (Parvati replying to Shiva) and Samhita (Vaishanva tantric texts), the whole culture is dubbed 'tantric' or 'agamic'.
How does Agama translate into Shiva replying to Parvati and Nigama to Parvati replying to Shiva? Is this classification universal? If so who is the authority?
Some say tantric culture and all tantras are pre-vedic (the Narayaneeya claims vedas originated from yamala class of tantras); though undoubtedly some were composed in different periods of post-vedic history. IMO, some tantras were composed in the epoch when native agamic priests and their deities were absorbed and elevated into the indo-aryan fold.
Again a lot of IMO stuff. But questions about “yamalas”. What is the origin and etymology of the word “Yamala”? Is there only one yamala? If there are various yamalas, which is the fore runner amongst them? If Yamala is a class of tantras as the poster has suggested, what are the other classes of tantras called?
What is the origin of the word “Shaman” according to the author? What is the approximate tribal period alluded to here? Is to pre vedic, post vedic or co-existing with vedic?Tantricism has its origins in shaman / shramana culture of tribal periods and were independent of religion at first.
It was later absorbed by various religions, hence, one cannot expect culture to be the same.
Was tantra a method of worship or was it a culture according to the author?
Even without a religion or religious laws; as a tribal faith system itself, tantric culture is varied. The usage of mantras, method of worship, the story associated with a given deity, etc was never homogeneous.
In what language is the mantra, method of worship etc. recorded? If it is in Sanskrit in original, why were the mantras composed in a non tribal language? If on the other hand, the mantras in Sanskrit are translation of some other original works, which is the language in which the original works were composed?
Bhagavathy Amman of Kerala and Kali Ma of Bengal have nothing in common. They are invoked differently, supplicated with different verses, and each is associated with a different legend. There is no evidence to show priests ever had a common origin. Priests arose from different cultural sets of people. It was only in the Gupta period, the earliest attempt was made to rope in regional feminine deities into a single entity, Devi. IMO all unification attempts, whether of pre-gupta period or post-gupta period, are linked with political power; and so is the absorption or elevation of some agamas with dharmashastras.
Once again IMO stuff.
Lot of IMO stuff and a lot of wild speculation at best. Even a cursory reading of a reasonable translation of poorva meemamsa will show that the “meemamsa” covered both mantras (as contained in samhitas {as also mantras appearing in brahmana portions of taittiriya shaka} and bramaNas)I request more info on this. How, in your opinion, were trayee-vedists lenient towards idol worship ?
In earlier threads there were heated discussions on, prohibition of idol worship in trayee-vedas; such as, verses in Rig looking down upon Sisnadeva (linga) worship, vedic aryans looking down upon worship practices of dasyus, quotes like na pratima asti to denote lack of idol worship in yajur, the case of Dayanand Saraswati quoting from vedas to reject presence of idol worship in vedas, etc.
We had also discussed differences between Atharva and the trayi-vedas earlier. In this thread we had also dealt with changing form of worship; ie., how it differed in the samhita period and the brahmana period. Quite apparently, there was an absorption scenario, where purvamimansa became an outcome of brahmanas (texts); and purvamimansa priests absorbed native deities in their fold. This IMO is linked to absorption of specific agamas (which came to be dubbed vaidika agamas) and their native priests into the purvamimansa fold; which happened in the post-brahmana period (must be long after the brahmana texts were composed).
So we have a 2-way situation here. One, of agamas accepting authority of dharmashastras such that native priests were absorbed or elevated into Indo-aryan ritual fold as vaidika agama priests. Two, of purvamimansa priests absorbing native deities in their fold.
In what manner is the word “agama” used here? You mean the agama texts (that is those tantras based on Siva replying to Parvati accepted the authority of dharmashastras? And the others, viz. nigama and samhita did not accept?
If agama is a tantra, as you have been saying so far, where does the “idol” worship come in here? Is not the tantras a type of worship involving yantras, viz. geometrical shaped objects?
Which poorva meemamsa priests absorbed which native deities in their fold? Some pointers please!!
Priests of different cultures were not a common class. Those who became brahmins, obviously got to be so because of social power or victorious outcomes of tribal wars; irrespective of whether they arose from agamic groups or from purvamimansa groups.
Once again IMO stuff.
Did the gnanakanda ascetics themselves say that there were a markedly different class? What is the source for this affirmation?The gnanakanda ascetics on the other hand, were always, a markedly different class. Also, there have been very many different schools and cultures of asceticism.
The disagreement between Karmakanda ritualists and Gnanakanda ascetics was also discussed in older threads. Gnanakanda ascetics have more in common with non-vedic sharamana traditions.
Unless you give the origins of shaman traditions, this has to be categorized as IMO stuff.
Can you please give the exact sutra in poorva meemamsa which says asceticism is not acceptable to them?The ultimate goal itself; being Moksha for Gnanakanda ascetics is markedly different from the pitruloka of karmakanda ritualists. Asceticism is not acceptable to Karmakanda.
Can you quote any work attributed to Adi Sankara which brings out such an attempt of Sri Sankara to merge gnanakanda with karmakanda?Obviously, Adi Shankara was the first who made an attempt to merge gnanakanda asceticism with karmakanda ritualism
.(with regard to this, i doubt if certain verses of Brahmasutra bhasya were written by Adi Shankara at all, or were interloped into the text by later day writers, probably during vijayanagar period, to justify establishment of 4 institutions..)
Awaiting the recovery of your book for you to quote how Adi Sankara gave an irrelevant bhashyam to some sutras in brahma sutras.
Again IMO stuff, now giving a specific twist to bring in the concept of brahma rakshasas.It appears to me, the austroasiatic nagas were the original inhabitants and there was a prolonged war between indo-aryan speakers against the austroasiatic speakers (the latter constituting brahman rakshasas).