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"Complicatedism"

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கால பைரவன்;187766 said:
It is a fact that Jains have their own caste system and they practice endogamy (refer to sajatiya marriages), which is why several caste groups have come to disappear. Jinasena states in Adipurna that varnas was established by Rsaba.

"The whole mankind came into existence due to the rise of Jati-Nama-Karma; and the mankind was divided into four categories of Brahmana, Kshatriya, Vaishya and Shudra according to the differences in the vocations they followed for their livelihood. Those who observed `Vratas’ (i.e., religious injunctions to a greater degree) were known as Brahmanas, those who carried weapons as Kshatriyas, those who acquired wealth by just means as Vaishyas and those who maintained by resorting to low professions as Shudras."

The claims of Jains is that the varna system envisaged by their Jain acharyas is purely based on vocation and not on birth and that there is free movement of people between different varnas. This claim is all too familiar as this is not very different from claims of hindus.

I have written before that just because a view is anti-brahminical, it does not become anti-varna or anti-caste. Buddha did recognize caste system and justified it based on past karmas.

From the paper linked below:

In some places, he holds kshatriyas superior to brahmanas. "khattiyo parama nihinatam patto hoti" - even when a ksatriya is fallen in the deepest degradation, "khattiyo va setfha hino brahmano" the ksatriya is superior, brahmana inferior.

Please refer to the paper titled "Buddhism and the Caste System" by Yuvaraj Krishnan from the following link.
JIABS 9/1 (1986)

Already explained in older threads, caste system is older than varna system. Caste and varna are different. So to claim that Jains have castes does not make them brahmin or kshatriya or vaishya or shudra; especially as in the dharmashastra context. Maybe yet again, these threads can help remind:
1) http://www.tamilbrahmins.com/general-discussions/7646-politics-thirukkural-6.html#post108867
2) http://www.tamilbrahmins.com/genera...reservation-debate-resuming-11.html#post95620

Jinasena introduced laws associated with varna terms in 8th century AD due to specific circumstances, due to competition with brahmins. They are not the only ones to claim kshatriyas are superior than brahmins.

Maybe a paper by Alexis Sanderson will help. It is titled "Atharvavedins in Tantric Territory: The Angirasakalpa Texts of the Oriya Paippaladins and their Connection with the Trika and the Kalıkula, With critical editions of the Parajapavidhi, the Paramantravidhi, and the *Bhadrakalımantravidhiprakarana"

According to the paper, the royal priest, then, was ranked below the king himself but above the queen and the crown-prince, enjoying the same status as the chief minister. This is no different from thirukkural மன்னவன் கோல்-அந்தணர் நூற்கும் அறத்திற்கும் ஆதி as noted in this thread.

Additionally, you may wish to look up the works of Kosambi, wherein he says the dasa brahman took the gotra of the aryan kshatriya for whom he officiated as the priest.

Only the atharvavedin was allowed to be a priest for the king or princely families. Am providing an excerpt from Sanderson's paper on the atharvavedaparishista 2.4.1-5 as it even goes to say the below (sorry, cud not add in dialectics):

paippaladam gurum kuryac chrırastrarogyavardhanam | tatha saunakinam. vapi vedamantravipascitam | rastrasya vrddhikartaram dhanadhanyadibhih sada | atharvanad rte nanyo niyojyo tharvavid guruh | nrpena jayakamena nirmito gnir ivadhvare | bahvrco hanti vai rastram adhvaryur nasayet sutan | chandogo dhananasaya tasmad atharvan o guruh. | ajnanad va pramadad va yasya syad bahvrco guruh | desarastrapuramatyanasas tasya na sam sayah | yadi vadhvaryavam raja niyunakti purohitam | sastren a vadhyate ksipram pariksınarthavahanah | yathaiva pangur adhvanam apaksı candajo nabhah | evam chandogaguruna raja vrddhim. na gacchati....

He should appoint a Paippalada [-Atharvavedin] as his priest, for he will increase his wealth, realm, and health, or a Saunakin [-Atharvavedin], who is learned in the Mantras of [his] Veda. For he will cause the kingdom always to prosper in wealth, crops and the like. A king who desires to prevail over his enemies should appoint no expert in the Atharvaveda as his priest other than an Atharvavedin. For [the Atharvedin royal priest] has been created [as an element vital to his rule], just as the fire [is vital] to the Vedic sacrifice. A [royal priest who is a] Rgvedin destroys the kingdom, a Yajurvedin the [king’s] sons, and a Samavedin will bring about the loss of his wealth. Therefore [only] an Atharvavedin [should be appointed as his] priest. If out of ignorance or inattention [a king] has a Rgvedin [in this office] the loss of his region, kingdom, capital, and ministers will certainly follow. If the king appoints a Yajurvedin as his priest he will soon be killed by the sword, having lost his wealth, horses, and elephants. A king with a Samavedin as his priest does not prosper, just as a cripple cannot walk and a bird without wings cannot fly...

However, all this pertains to the Atharva. A different culture (which was most likely sangam period culture also). The atharva was included as a veda later; and is in many ways distinct from the trayi-vedas rig, sama, yajur. Sanderson has also presented a view that one could be trained as an atharva-vedin by competence rather than birth (which is probably why we hear that a rig, sama, yajur vedin has to undergo another upanayanam to become an atharva-vedin). Tantras or agamas such as pancharatara also do not deny entry to anyone competent.

Unfortunately, some puranas which seek to propagate dharmashastras' birth-based rules, invariably dub non-birth based positions, as avaidika agamas. Till date no one knows how many tantras exist and how many classes or types of priests may come under atharva; although we do know some classes as mentioned in various texts. Plus, David Lorenzen in "Early evidence for tantric religion" concludes tantrism began to be discernible in 5th century BC, and by 9th century BC it was manifested into buddhism and into 'hindu'. So tantrism diverged and became part of different religions then.

Anyways, all this is different from the dharmashastras followed by the trayi-veda people. In several older threads, we have dealt with differences between the atharva and the trayi-vedas. So, pali literature and atharva (or tantra) texts with regard to varna is not going to help. The locus standing of varna, as a birthright, is the bedrock of the Smriti texts of smartas.

You claim "varna system envisaged by Jain acharyas is purely based on vocation and not on birth" and that there is free movement of people between different varnas. That's ok. Anyways, due to their shramana, or tantrism origins that is to be expected.

But you also claim "This claim is all too familiar as this is not very different from claims of hindus". Please let me know where in dharmashastras can a shudra become a brahman due to his vocation and not his birth.

Thanks.
 
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Sri zebra16 Ji,

I am well aware of the Forum rules.

My comments to Sri Jaykay767 Ji was responded by him. And that is between us two. There is no need for you to interfere. I did not say you should not interfere.

Regards,
KRS


Now that you have clarified that the post in question was posted by you as a member, I too can say that as a member there was no need for you to give unsolicited input to Sri JK.

That apart Sri Praveen has already clarified that any person can respond to any post in general discussion forum, provided he follows the code of conduct of this forum so the question of solicitation does not arise.
 
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to clarify, maybe, folks who claim that jainism, buddhism or sikhism, has roots, evolved out of hinduism, and pay obeisance to the vedas - do not realize how insensitive they are to the feelings of those faiths. i would not be surprised, that these folks who propagate such view, as brahmins, claim 'leadership' role here too, as the priestly class. that will be the last straw!!

whatever good will these jains/buddhist/sikh folks might have for the hindus, and brahmins in particular, i think, will evaporate immediately, on such pretensions. if all was good with vedic hinduism, there would have been no need for buddhism or jainism for that matter.

and we tambrams, continuing to harp on vedas, and ignoring the glorious heritage of tamil hinduism, of which we were a presence since sangam times, is i think, underselling ourselves in tamil nadu. all for what? i dont know.

there is no implied anti brahminism anywhere here. just facts, and a gentle instigation as to how we should approach our relationships with other faiths and ways of life. today, any indian originated faith, to us, is non threatening. that does not mean, these will give up their distinct identity when it comes matters of philosophy or practise. and none of them, are going to participate in our mutt affairs or yagnas.

the same goes for arya samaj or brahmo samaj. these too may claim to be offshoots of hinduism but with huge reservations on the scope and participation of priesthood and rituals.

even more telling, within our tambram groups, still today, a srivaishnavite will not step inside the kapali temple. so absolute is his devotion to vishnu. he might claim commonality to an extent, but that stops at the doors of the temple that he visits, and immaterial, whether i, a smartha, have no problems visiting sri rangam or thirupathi. from his viewpoint, there will be no quid pro quo. saying this, does not make an anti brahmin :). let us respect differences, and we will all be the better for it.
 
Already explained in older threads, caste system is older than varna system. .
Palindrome said:
You claim "varna system envisaged by Jain acharyas is purely based on vocation and not on birth" and that there is free movement of people between different varnas. That's ok. Anyways, due to their shramana, or tantrism origins that is to be expected.

I do not dispute that the caste system is older than the varna system. But I doubt whether we are in agreement over what constitues caste and what constitues varna. According to some, caste is occupation based whereas varna is birth based. But that view is not shared by all. One can see in many texts, the varnas - that is the four classes are always identified by vocations. Membership to caste (till date), on the other hand, is restricted only by birth. Therefore, it is varna that is flexible but caste is rigid. The claim of Jains is that when there were only four varnas, they were flexible, and membership into a varna is determined by merit and not by birth (Buddha says it is based on poorva janma karma).

Palindrome said:
Jinasena introduced laws associated with varna terms in 8th century AD due to specific circumstances, due to competition with brahmins. They are not the only ones to claim kshatriyas are superior than brahmins.

It is not clear. What competition did he have with brahmins and what forced him to associate jain laws with varna terms? Jinasena went to the extent of saying that the varnas were created by the first thirthankara of the jain religion. The verse is quite similar to the verse found in purusa suktha (which, of course, is considered as a later interpolation).

The fact is the varna system is a social stratification. This I have mentioned several times before, and different religions, including budhhism and jainism, have tried to incorporate this into their philosophical systems because otherwise the society would not accept them. My opinion is that this is true for the vedic religion also and hence demonizing vedic religion for the social system that was prevalent is unjust, in my opinion, and is a result of prejudice against brahmins.
 
there is no implied anti brahminism anywhere here. just facts, and a gentle instigation as to how we should approach our relationships with other faiths and ways of life. today, any indian originated faith, to us, is non threatening. that does not mean, these will give up their distinct identity when it comes matters of philosophy or practise. and none of them, are going to participate in our mutt affairs or yagnas.

You have always held the opinion that buddhism and jainism are virulently anti-brahminical and have even stated so many times in this forum. I do not understand how holding this view helps brahmins to improve their relationship with other faiths.

Let the buddhists and jains have their own individual identity. On that, there is no issue. Whether that identity was anti-brahminical is the point of discussion here and I wonder how by saying they are anti-brahminical one seeks to improve relationship with them.
 
கால பைரவன்;187783 said:
I do not dispute that the caste system is older than the varna system. But I doubt whether we are in agreement over what constitues caste and what constitues varna. According to some, caste is occupation based whereas varna is birth based. But that view is not shared by all. One can see in many texts, the varnas - that is the four classes are always identified by vocations. Membership to caste (till date), on the other hand, is restricted only by birth. Therefore, it is varna that is flexible but caste is rigid. The claim of Jains is that when there were only four varnas, they were flexible, and membership into a varna is determined by merit and not by birth (Buddha says it is based on poorva janma karma).
Caste and varna are comparable social structures. Both depend on vocation. However, they are different in far too many ways.

Jati represents occupation only. Members of a jati can be a guild or vice-versa (as is the case with balinese agamic religion to this day). A son learns the trade from his father, or from members of his guild. Whether it be iron smelting as a blacksmith, crafting jewelery, selling wares, pottery, etc. There is no competition amongst these to claim of superior birth. A potter can learn sculpturing if he chooses to.

Varna is a class, not caste. Members of 3 classes (brahman, kshatriya, vaishya) as a set represent a different culture. They follow rituals which define them as members of that varna. For example: upanayanam to signify start of learning as a brahmachari (celibate student). The 3 varnas are further differentiated, such as the type of wood and length of staff given to a boy during upanayam is different for a brahman, different for kshatriya, different for vaishya.

Varna, being a class sytem, naturally there is a hierarchy; with brahman highest and shudra lowest. Change of occupation in this culture is not allowed. It is fixed by birth. A shudra can never be freed from slavery. There is violence to keep him subjugated as a slave. A brahmana may take to certain occupations allowed by dharmashastras, under certain circumstances.

So you see varna system of dharmashastras (so-called 'hindu') is different from caste system. Most castes, culturally, are agamic. They follow idol worship. They do not perform brahmanical vedic fire sacrifices.

Varna (system) of buddhism and jainism is a totally different from varna (system) of 'hindu' dharmashastras. In buddhism and jainism, ability and proclivity, alone decide vocation. There is a choice. There is no violence. And of course, interest in a particular subject, the desire to pursue something, are results of purvajanma karma.

Time and again, varna of buddhism or jainism, which is largely a benign social structure, is passed off as varna of 'hindu' dharmashastras.

It is not clear. What competition did he have with brahmins and what forced him to associate jain laws with varna terms? Jinasena went to the extent of saying that the varnas were created by the first thirthankara of the jain religion. The verse is quite similar to the verse found in purusa suktha (which, of course, is considered as a later interpolation).
Why would jains accept brahmin dharmashastra laws. They wanted a set of laws for themselves. Laws are required in every aspect of life, such as marriage, commerce, inheritance, etc. Bickering is everywhere. Whether you are allowed to marry someone or not, whether divorce should be permitted or not, whether you are legally entitled to have several wives, even if your existing wives disallow you to marry again. Whether you own some heirlooms, some property or own a business (your sons may squabble to inherit).

Since jains belong to a different culture / religion, they are not brahmans, kshatriyas, vaishyas, from the brahmanical dharmashastra point of view. The only option is to allocate shudra varna to them. But why should Jains accept such a position? So they devised their own varna version where ability decides vocation and allocatable varna.

The fact is the varna system is a social stratification. This I have mentioned several times before, and different religions, including budhhism and jainism, have tried to incorporate this into their philosophical systems because otherwise the society would not accept them. My opinion is that this is true for the vedic religion also and hence demonizing vedic religion for the social system that was prevalent is unjust, in my opinion, and is a result of prejudice against brahmins.
How would stating historical facts, amount to prejudice? The main point is, some people think, anyone saying anything against their view is anti-brahmin. The easiest way to deal with any subject is to disassociate from all forms of identities. The best way for me was to not bother about what near and dear ones had to say. It wud be better if everyone thinks 'i am a human', 'ok lets see what this is about'; instead of thinking 'i am of so and so caste'.

கால பைரவன்;187784 said:
You have always held the opinion that buddhism and jainism are virulently anti-brahminical and have even stated so many times in this forum. I do not understand how holding this view helps brahmins to improve their relationship with other faiths.
They are just different religions. By stating a fact, how can relationship of brahmins with other faiths get spoiled?

What do they get, if you insist they are hindus or brahmins? If you keep claiming they are hindus, instead, it will spoil their relationship with brahmins further. Already, they had enough headache in colonial period by being classed as hindus. So time to leave them alone. Most likely, they will respect you, if you did so.

Let the buddhists and jains have their own individual identity. On that, there is no issue. Whether that identity was anti-brahminical is the point of discussion here and I wonder how by saying they are anti-brahminical one seeks to improve relationship with them.
?? I do not think anyone (at least these days) wants to base a relationship on religion. Who wants to improve relationship with anyone based on religion, caste, creed? Should these matter at all?
 
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the glorious heritage of tamil hinduism, of which we were a presence since sangam times, is i think, underselling ourselves in tamil nadu. all for what? i dont know.
I have often wondered, and previously asked kalabhiarava this -- ''what prevents you from taking pride in being the exalted அந்தணர் of the sangam period, WITHOUT the association of smrithis ??''

Since smartas also arose from agamic cultures, i wonder, why so much allegience to smritis and so little to the agamic cultures? I cannot think of any other reason, except perhaps

(a) the assumption we are vedic and have nothing to do with local cultures
(b) the desire to be a brahmana which gives a feeling of being special or at times makes one have a holier than thou feeling. Everyone wants to be called a brahmana (even if he traces his role to a yajur adhvaryu or to the shivacharya agamic cultures)
(c) the mental superimposition, that ''by being brahmins'' and "as brahmins" we have to save our dharma, our culture, our role
(d) a certain kind of guidance which makes them think there used to be a glorious past, and we have to reinstate it...this most times comes with the inability to accept certain verses exist against some people in the dharmashastras or the inability to accept a utopian paradise did not exist
 
They are just different religions. By stating a fact, how can relationship of brahmins with other faiths get spoiled?

What do they get, if you insist they are hindus or brahmins? If you keep claiming they are hindus, instead, it will spoil their relationship with brahmins further. Already, they had enough headache in colonial period by being classed as hindus. So time to leave them alone. Most likely, they will respect you, if you did so.

?? I do not think anyone (at least these days) wants to base a relationship on religion. Who wants to improve relationship with anyone based on religion, caste, creed? Should these matter at all?

My post #303 was addressed to Kunjuppu, please. Perhaps you did not notice it. He was the one who talked about "approaching relationships with other faiths". I asked how harping on the anti-brahmanical theme of these religions helps this cause.

It is clear to some of us why few members refer to buddhism and jainism in this forum - to only touch upon the "anti-brahminical" theme of these religions. It is not uncommon for the brabas to quote buddha, or a bharathi or a Vivekananda to lend support to their views. Therefore, a guy like JK coming here and saying that jainism and buddhism are not anti-brahminical is intolerable to them.
 
Palindrome said:
Why would jains accept brahmin dharmashastra laws. They wanted a set of laws for themselves. Laws are required in every aspect of life, such as marriage, commerce, inheritance, etc. Bickering is everywhere. Whether you are allowed to marry someone or not, whether divorce should be permitted or not, whether you are legally entitled to have several wives, even if your existing wives disallow you to marry again. Whether you own some heirlooms, some property or own a business (your sons may squabble to inherit).

Since jains belong to a different culture / religion, they are not brahmans, kshatriyas, vaishyas, from the brahmanical dharmashastra point of view. The only option is to allocate shudra varna to them. But why should Jains accept such a position? So they devised their own varna version where ability decides vocation and allocatable varna.

This appears to be circular logic again. Majority of the laws viz-a-viz varna were/are societal laws. That is my point. As far as social laws are concerned, the jains followed very similar set of laws. That is the reason why varna classification was added to their philosophical system. Even in the religious sphere, there were some priveleges conferred on only the first three classes and shudras of the jain society were kept out of these priveleges. For example, according to Jinasena, the "shudras" were not permitted to receive mendicant initiation (called "diksa"). There were times when "shudras" were not allowed to enter jain temples.

There are enough papers on buddhism which conclusively prove that Buddha himself not only did anything to remove caste system but actually accepted it. He emphasizes varna dharma for all sections. "The ksatriyas, brahmanas, vaisyas, Sudras, candalas and pukkusas, by practising the dharma in this world, will become equal in heaven". There is no question of varna movement in buddhism, as you opine, because it is one's purva janma karma that determines one's current caste status.

I am just writing this to point out that these religions, buddhism/jainism, did not reject the varna/ class system but merely accepted them. Rather they reasoned that an individual's poorva janma karma is responsible for this varna/class system and one should do his allocated duty to attain liberation or gain ascendancy in the varna hierarchy. That is why I mentioned even if they are anti-brahmin, they are not anti-varna. If their brahmana, kshatriya, and vaisya are different - so be it. But they discriminated their "Shudra" all the same!
 
How would stating historical facts, amount to prejudice? The main point is, some people think, anyone saying anything against their view is anti-brahmin. The easiest way to deal with any subject is to disassociate from all forms of identities. The best way for me was to not bother about what near and dear ones had to say. It wud be better if everyone thinks 'i am a human', 'ok lets see what this is about'; instead of thinking 'i am of so and so caste'.

First, you are not the only one stating historical facts. Second, in general, not only facts are quoted here but opinions are formed, discussed, and propagated. Your accusation of caste prejudice is not different from my observation of prejudice.
 
palindrome,

My response below in 'blue':

Sir, i will most certainly get the 2 books you recommend. Since i do not have them with me as of now, would be glad if you could clarify some things.


Does Advaita explain why the entity creates a physical world out of itself?
It does not explicitly state that, to my knowledge. The Vedas and Upanishads deal with the how and the what, not the why.

With the big bang hot and dense plank epoch burst and began expanding. The universe still is expanding, which some say is due to dark matter (which however no one knows what it is yet). The universe also has an age, ie., an estimate value when the big bang took place. If nirguna is beyond time and space, it means it (nirguna) existed before the big bang, and is beyond the means of understanding of plank time. So nirguna is either nothingness, or is an entity at the beginning of everything that created something. If nothingness, with nothing to create, wud rest my case. But if an entity which begins to create, then doubts remain. Since the created is what we see, we must say it (nirguna) creates. We can say, creation started from nothingness. Does advaita say something on the entity which the nothingness creates? If nirguna is nothingness, how and why did it (a) acquire the means to create and (b) start to create ?
Nirguna is not 'nothingness'. It is some entity that is beyond our senses and senses. Hence, nothing in the physical world viz., form, function and label applies to it.

But because of the theory of causation, something should have been responsible for the 'big bang'. 'Nothing', as we understand it, can not be a cause for what we call as 'creation'.

Since the Shruti is a vast expanse of literature, with verses which may be interreted in different ways, i do have a request, please could the topic involve the Shruti but is not limited to Shruti.
Advaitha is constructed as a philosophical system, using different Nyaya principles vid; Wikipedia on Pramana):
In Advaita Vedānta, the following pramanas are accepted:

  1. Pratyakṣa (perception), the knowledge gained by means of the senses;
  2. Anumāṇa (inference), the knowledge gained by means of inference;
  3. Śabda (verbal testimony), the knowledge gained by verbal testimony;
  4. Upamāṇa (comparison), the knowledge gained by means of analogy
  5. Arthāpatti (postulation), the knowledge gained by superimposing the known knowledge on an appearing knowledge that does not concur with the known knowledge;
  6. Anupalabdi (non-cognition), non-apprehension and skepticism in the face of non-apprehension.
From the Vedas, the Maha Vakyas form the basis axioms as well as the content of Brahma Sutra:
The Mahavakyas are (vid Wikipedia on Maha Vakyas):

  1. prajñānam brahma - "Prajñānam is Brahman", or "Brahman is Prajñānam" (Aitareya Upanishad 3.3 of the Rig Veda)
  2. ayam ātmā brahma - "This Self (Atman) is Brahman" (Mandukya Upanishad 1.2 of theAtharva Veda)
  3. tat tvam asi - "Thou art That" (Chandogya Upanishad 6.8.7 of the Sama Veda)
  4. aham brahmāsmi - "I am Brahman", or "I am Divine"(Brhadaranyaka Upanishad 1.4.10 of the Yajur Veda)
So the Advaitha philosophical system (as well as others) within the Hindu tradition, were constructed to extend what the Sruthis say and expand it to connect to the physical world.


The premise is very interesting. You have explained it very well also. So Relative real = our sense perceptions. Absolute real = brahman. The observable universe is observable because of our sense perceptions. The absolute real is nothingness (nirguna).

The observer perceives whatever is relative real (or the observable). Advidya can be overcome by (a) understanding that the only (absolute) reality is nirguna (b) understanding what is not real (here it involves an understanding that if someone were to think "I" is real, it is an illusion). So the relative real is phenomenological and perishable, whilst absolute real remains whether we (humans or any life forms) exist or not.

I very well accept the premise above. The only point unresolved would be, being in a state of relative real, how do we know there exists an absolute real? How do we know we are in a state of relative real? Since we are part of the observable (relative real), we may not be able to perceive the absolute real.

It appears to me, the Relative real can be explained through the phenomena of life and death, so we are able to say, our existence is an illusion because the body ceases to exist or perceive the universe on death. However, it may not explain, how we being part of the relative real, know what we 'understand' to be absolute real ?
This is where Guru Shankara explains about Jnana Yoga, in terms of how to know the Brahman. There are qualifications to be met by an aspirant as well as the four fold discipline one must follow to attain this knowledge. One has to combine both the intellectual and spiritual pursuit with discipline and discrimination to do this.

Am not very comfortable using the words maya and avidya interchangeably. Avaidya is lack of knowledge specifically to me. Once the word maya has been used for illusion, one may give any number of examples to describe what illusions are.
These are technical terms, used with precise language within the philosophical system. If we try to connect these words to the common language we use, it will produce errors in understanding Advaitha. One needs to understand what Guru Shankara meant the definitions of these words were, to understand the system.

In terms of absolute reality (brahman), it is well true that relative real is an illusion since we can see death is the end of life. But again as said earlier, being in a state of illusion, how do we know that an absolute real exists? Does advaita explain this through the locus of avidya? Something which needs to be "penetrated through" or needs "to be cleared", to understand that an absolute real exists? Not only Guru Shankara's but if anyone else has explained this, would like to understand their premise.
Please read above where Jnana Yoga is mentioned.


This is the big question, "we do not know why creation takes place"; and "we do not know its origins". Which in effect also could mean, we do not know how maya or prakriti (that which creates) relates to brahman (that which is nirguna or null). We are only able to say maya (creation) is rooted in brahman (nirguna) but yet is not part of brahman. This in effect could mean, (a) brahman is not nirguna, (b) brahman was nirguna (nothingness) at first but acquired the guna (propensity) to create. If (b) then again, the question remains how and why does nirguna acquire the propensity to create.
The analogy often used is that of our Sun, which, by his rays make all things happen on the earth, yet is not part of earth (there are other analogies, but each one is somewhat not full). No religion or Science will ever can conduct an experiment to find out why the Brahman has created the physical world. Again, our senses can not comprehending this. This is why different paths / Yogas were given as a way to know the Brahman.


Thanks very much sir. I very much value your inputs, which creates a format for my senses to try and understand. Am aware it may not be possible to explain 'creation' wholly, either in advaita or anywhere else at all, including science. We are all attempting to gain insights on it. Here thru philosophical means. Sometimes with questions we pose to others, sometimes with questions posed to ourselves, with the hope of understanding things we entirely had not known earlier, or did not understand well enough before. Understanding new perspectives always helps.
 
Dear Sri Sangom Ji,

You said, in post # 250:

but AFAIK, Islam has only one God and no other divinity or deities. It is thus more advaitic than Shankara's.

With one big difference - Allah is a Saguna God who demands absolute obedience.

Regards,
KRS
 
Lets get some things right.

Lord Mahavir saying he is a Brahmin in the Sanskrit Slokams is a historical fact. The attempt to confuse this, question this, & argue unnecessarily is not a historical fact.

Lord Buddha was a descendant of Angirasa through Gautama. This is a historical fact as stated in our ancient texts. The attempt to confuse this, question this, & argue unnecessarily is not a historical fact.
Some more historical facts:
The first convert of Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism was Indrabhuti (aka Gautamswami) the Brahmin, who headed a group of other Brahmins and converted them to Jainism. He was from the village Gobbar (also called Govarya) near Rajgriha. It is said that the Tapsas, who were competing with Gautama to reach the top of a hill, achieved moksha by seeing Gautama win.

Most of the Jainism & Buddhism texts were coded by the Brahmins as recorded in the slokams.

No point in arguing on the above.
 
கால பைரவன்;187790 said:
My post #303 was addressed to Kunjuppu, please. Perhaps you did not notice it. He was the one who talked about "approaching relationships with other faiths". I asked how harping on the anti-brahmanical theme of these religions helps this cause.

It is clear to some of us why few members refer to buddhism and jainism in this forum - to only touch upon the "anti-brahminical" theme of these religions. It is not uncommon for the brabas to quote buddha, or a bharathi or a Vivekananda to lend support to their views. Therefore, a guy like JK coming here and saying that jainism and buddhism are not anti-brahminical is intolerable to them.
So, according to your logic, those who claim jains and buddhists are hindus (and this includes RSS), are pro-brahmanism? If this discussion were about comparing philosophies of various religions, we wud be discussing them. However, it is about erroneous claims
(1) that mahavira and buddha were brahmins or kshatriyas,
(2) that jainism and buddhism are vedic; or offshoots of vedic religion; or they accept the vedic religion
(3) that jainism and buddhism are branches of whatever is 'hinduism'

To top it (according to you), jain varna and hindu varna were the same.

Such misleading claims are not just plain falsity; but do not help jains and buddists at all. It is plain mischievous to discredit great leaders, (who were not just teachers), like Mahavira and Buddha; as though their teachings were vedic, accepted brahmin dharmashastra varna model, etc.

கால பைரவன்;187792 said:
This appears to be circular logic again. Majority of the laws viz-a-viz varna were/are societal laws. That is my point. As far as social laws are concerned, the jains followed very similar set of laws. That is the reason why varna classification was added to their philosophical system. Even in the religious sphere, there were some priveleges conferred on only the first three classes and shudras of the jain society were kept out of these priveleges. For example, according to Jinasena, the "shudras" were not permitted to receive mendicant initiation (called "diksa"). There were times when "shudras" were not allowed to enter jain temples.
Kindly give me an example where a so-called jain shudra was not allowed to enter jain temples.

As a class, majority jains were a class of traders. Since brahmin dharmashastra model has 4 varnas, the jains too used all 4 varna terms; and copied the model of brahmin dharmashastras on near equal footing; with all sorts of rules and regulations (an outcome of competition with brahmins or an attempt to dominate versus brahmins).

An important distinctive feature in Jain varnas is flexibility and mobility across varnas, based on vocation not birth. Your issue with jinasena has been addressed by a gentleman in this yahoo post. With due credit to the author (anishshah), i reproduce the post verbatim here (since it explains so well precisely to the point):

1. Prof Jaini mentions the story of Harikesi to show that Jains admitted the lower castes and pariahs in its order and that salvation was possible for them. It does not matter whether its a Digambara or a Svetambara story, as it represents the Jain view.

2. Rushabhdev Swami is credited as starting the castes of Kshatriya, Vaishya and Shudra. But Jaini points out two things: One, Shudra refers to as craftsman and it is not hereditary. Secondly this classification by Rushabhdev was when he was a king, when he had not achieved perfection or Kevala Jnana. He mentions on the mundane and socio-political nature of this action. This classification has neither spiritual nor religious significance. We often loosely mention that Rishabhadev swami did this and that without realising whether it was as a Jina or before. What he did before his Kevala Jnana is not really relevant. Furthermore, the only hierarchy that Jains accepted was that of King and Subject, where a birth in king or the warrior family were considered as a noble or higher birth. Brahmins, Vaishyas and Shudras were equals but under the king.

3. Now the main part as how the denial of Salvation to Shudras became part of certain Digambara belief. The genesis of this belief according to Jaini and most Jain scholars lies in Adipurana of Jinasena in 10th Century CE. Jinasena denied possibility of full renunciation to Shudras. Most Jain texts were spiritual and practically gave no guidance to laymen on social, cultural and political sphere. Jinasena was probably the first Jain acharya to codify certain Jain social practices that had little religious significance but helped to “Jainify” the pan-Indian cultural practices. However in his enthusiasm, he incorporated some brahmanical prejudices. He denied full renunciation to shudras, but untouchability was never a part of his teachings. In fact he gave a better status to Shudras than the vedics, he allowed them to reach a stage of Ailaka or partial renunciation. However Jaini lays stress that it has no sanction of earlier Digambara or even Svetambara scriptures and it was solely his introduction.

Therefore, Manishbhai is correct in saying that no Digambara texts ever denied liberation to Shudras. Jinasena’s assertion is an aberration and not sanctioned by the earlier original tradition. Pt. Todarmal probably never had benefit of original Digambara agamas and relied on Jinasena and hence this view. Had he got his hands on Dhavala and Shatkhandagama he would have probably revised his view. Currently there are Digambara monk from lower castes and Jains as a rule do not follow untouchability.


Shudra is a slave in the hindu 'brahmin' dharmashastras. One who is kept suppressed violently in the brahmin dharmashastra model. Although jainism and buddhism adopted the term 'shudra', there is no evidence whatsoever that Mahavira and Buddha supported the brahmin version of it. On the contrary, there are enough evidences that Mahavira and Buddha sought to improve the position of slaves to whatever extent they could (and this was at a time when slavery was common in society).

Even "The Indian decisions (new series): Bombay, Volume 23, by Great Britain Privy Council, Judicial Committee, Lawyer's Companion Office" (a book which i strongly recommend to understand colonial period confusions with jains) says this:

"As the Jains are mostly Vaishyas, it is plain that the exceptional rules laid down for Shudras can have no place in matters relating to Jains".

During muslim onslaughts, various native religions united. How dharmashastras worked then, am not so sure. However, necessity presumably brought unity amongst people of native religions. Vijayanagar and post-vijayanagar periods strongly supported hindu temples, and brahmins gained dominance. Converting into 'hindu' must have started then; or perhaps during those times it did not matter at all.

All confusion can however be tracked back to the colonial period. Converting into hindu in colonial period was difficult. One had to trace the earlier caste of descent and 'return' to it (Ref: this book, p.175). But now, (as colonial courts required it) caste (jati) had to be tagged with a varna. And it was not easy for jains. A common example i have given earlier is of Komatis. Former jains such as komatis had hard luck being recognized as vaishyas. Brahmin smarta niyogis gave them much trouble. Komatis did everything in their capacity (producing puranic literature, tagging their gotras with brahmin rishis, etc) to be recognized as vaishyas. This was how much it took. All this because, the brahmin dharmashastra model dominated in colonial period.

There are enough papers on buddhism which conclusively prove that Buddha himself not only did anything to remove caste system but actually accepted it. He emphasizes varna dharma for all sections. "The ksatriyas, brahmanas, vaisyas, Sudras, candalas and pukkusas, by practising the dharma in this world, will become equal in heaven". There is no question of varna movement in buddhism, as you opine, because it is one's purva janma karma that determines one's current caste status.
Again you have superimposed varna (of brahmin dharmashastra system) on castes. Caste and Varna are two different social systems, already elaborated enuf on it.

Of course, Jains and Buddhists had castes. No evidence Mahavira and Buddha had doctrines prohibiting movement between castes. Notably, Jainism and Buddhism did not follow varna model of brahmin dharmashastras. Kindly produce proof from buddist literature or pali canon endorsing slavery, endorsing violent subjugation of people into shudra slaves (just as the brahmin dharmashastras do).

Again, please do not misrepresent purvajanma karma of buddhism. Already explained, how it works in buddhism. Again, i repeat, anyone born anywhere could inherit certain inclinations, abilities, proclivities, due to his purvajanma karma. Anyone could become a monk, anyone could join the sangha and study. Buddhism does not clamp down a rigid birth-based hierarchy.

The phrase you quote (in blue) refers to buddhist dharma (pali: dhamma). Not to dharma rules of brahmin dharmashastra books. Buddhist dharma is an antithesis of brahmin dharma rules. Buddhist dharma is to follow Buddha's teachings (which includes His philosophy).

Please prove there was no varna movement in buddhism.

I am just writing this to point out that these religions, buddhism/jainism, did not reject the varna/ class system but merely accepted them. Rather they reasoned that an individual's poorva janma karma is responsible for this varna/class system and one should do his allocated duty to attain liberation or gain ascendancy in the varna hierarchy. That is why I mentioned even if they are anti-brahmin, they are not anti-varna. If their brahmana, kshatriya, and vaisya are different - so be it. But they discriminated their "Shudra" all the same!
Buddha and Mahavira rejected the vedas, brahmanical fire sacrifices and brahmin dharmashastra rule books (and the brahmin varna model). If Buddha had accepted brahmin varna rules, He would not say that phrase in blue welcoming all to practice buddha's dharma.

Please prove buddha accepted the brahmin dharmashastra model.

Buddha asked rulers themselves to oversee equal distribution of wealth among labourers and slaves and consider all of their citizens as sons and daughters (see Arya bodhisatvachaya gocharopaaya vishaya vikurana nirdesha nama or this book). At a time when slaves were common, and in a society which functioned due to slaves, Buddhism was the first religion to introduce a doctrine prohibiting trafficking of slaves. Buddha's dharma could not wholly liberate folks from slavery, however, it helped to greatly improve their position. Now a slave too could shed their identity, enter a sangha, and follow a mainstream (here, buddhist) philosophy.

Buddhist sangha and universities admitted students of all castes. Buddha accepted untouchable women into the Buddhist dharma fold. They got opportunities to study. Sanskrit was taught in Buddhist universities, though Pali was used for transmitting teachings. Admission was open to everyone, including non-buddhists (Ref: Educational Theories and Practices from the Majority World, by Dasen & Akkari (Eds)).

Buddhism is a very antithesis of the brahmin varna system.

கால பைரவன்;187794 said:
First, you are not the only one stating historical facts. Second, in general, not only facts are quoted here but opinions are formed, discussed, and propagated. Your accusation of caste prejudice is not different from my observation of prejudice.
So be it. That applies to everyone discussing here. My job is to provide info. Readers are free to form whatever opinions they please.
 
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Dear Kunjuppu,

Let me clarify.

I did not raise the subject of Jainism & Buddhism, I only responded to Renuka's post.

There is NO deliberate intent to upset anyone by claiming that Jainism & Buddhism are attached to the Vedic Religion. This is based on a lot of historical evidences as mentioned in our sanskrit texts.

All these 3 religions originate from the same land, around the same time, from the same brahmin community, so it is natural for all the 3 to have a lot of commonality & the various Guru’s to be influenced by each other.

I have no problem if some one says, Vedic religion borrowed from Buddhism or Jainism !!

Tomorrow, some one will come along & say – JK, you cannot say you are a Brahmin because that upsets us !!.

so are you saying we dont state facts because of the political correctness / fear of upsetting others ???

Cheers,
 
palindrome,

You said in post # 257:
CERN even found neutrinos traveling faster than light. A new particle, speculated for now to be the higgs boson, has also been found. Could we say all these particles are an illusion? If so why do they exist?​


CERN claims were found to be premature on account of some loose wires, nutrinos still do not travel at faster than light. Einstein's theory on the limitation of speed still holds.

Theory proposed the Higgs Boson, and it is beeing confirmed as existing as we speak. They have to get more results with repeat experiments.

Particle Physics deep dives in to an area, which analyzes what we know as the parts of an atom - electrons, protons and neutrons, which once we thought were the 'fundamental' particles of the smallest unit of matter, viz., the atom, are not 'fundamental at all. When you smash some of these particles at varying high speeds, smaller particles seem to appear, confirming the theories so far.

We know from Quantum Mechanics, under certain conditions, particles behave as waves (like energies like light, etc.), and energy transforms in to particle under some conditions. I think this line where the energy/particles interact and can go from one to another is what is being studied.

Has no immediate relevance to why the Universe was created, even though the Higgs Boson is called a 'Gods Particle', which is a misnomer.

Regards,
KRS
 
Has no immediate relevance to why the Universe was created, even though the Higgs Boson is called a 'Gods Particle', which is a misnomer.

Regards,
KRS
Thanks for the wealth of info in post 314 sir. My post has no relevance to why universe was created. Wanted to know Sangom sir's view, if particles are illusions, since they (particles) exist whether we exist or not.
 
Dear Sri C. Ravi Ji,

Usually, some religions come in to being, because there is an inadequacy of an existing religion to the new converts, be it based on spiritual, political or social reasons.

So, in that sense, in my opinion, a new religion is born, is it does not accept the canonical authority of the original religion. Both Buddhism and Jainism do not accept the absolute authority of Vedas, and hence need to be deemed as separate religions from Hinduism.

Please refer to my posting on this to Sri Jaykay767 Ji, on an anology of the Abrahamic religions.

Regards,
KRS

Shri KRS,


If tomorrow a group of Hindus, following the basic tenants of Hinduism, come up with new/altered concepts, opposing some of the scriptures, practices, etc, will it be wrong to say that, this new group in fact has originated from Hinduism, having vedic foundation?


----------------


Source - Wikipedia

Shramana - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia


The Shramana (Skt. Śramaa; Pāli. samaa) movement was a Non-Vedic movement parallel to Vedic Hinduism in ancient India. The Shramana tradition gave rise to Jainism,[SUP][1][/SUP] Buddhism,[SUP][2][/SUP] and Yoga,[SUP][3][/SUP] and was responsible for the related concepts of saṃsāra (the cycle of birth and death) and moksha (liberation from that cycle).[SUP][4][/SUP]


There are only two references to the word Sramana in vedic literature.[SUP][9][/SUP] One is in Brihadaranyaka Upanishad where it is placed next to the term 'tapasa', indicating that the Shramana like the tapasa was a class of mendicants.[SUP][9][/SUP] It has been argued renunciation was not uncommon to the Vedic society, with Yatis, Munis, Shramanas quoted amongst earliest renouncers.[SUP][10][/SUP] In the pastoral cultures of Vedic people, the renouncer Munis and Yatis were looked down upon.[SUP][11][/SUP] The renouncers meditated upon death, link between births and death conditioned by attachment to desire. These themes surface in vedic literature for the first time in the Upanishads. After passing through henotheism and pantheism, the anthropomorphism of Vedas entered the period of monism in the Upanishadic period.[SUP][9][/SUP]

the Sramana movement impacted Vedic education through the Upanishads, with debate and discussion replacing parrot-like repetition of the Vedas.[SUP][12][/SUP] Many Upanishads compile contradictory positions where the favorite style of debate is to pose questions until the other cannot answer.[SUP][13][/SUP] The infinite regress notwithstanding, upanishadic arguments do not involve finding logical contradictions in opposing doctrines.[SUP][13][/SUP] The heterogenous nature of Upanishads shows infusions of both social and philosophical elements, pointing to evolution of new doctrines from non-brahmanical sources.[SUP][9][/SUP] While the Upanishadic doctrines of Brahman and Atman can be traced back to the Vedas and Brahmanas, the doctrines of Transmigration (as punarjanma), Karma (as action), and Emancipation (as moksha) do not follow with consistency from vedic traditions, and are fundamental to the Shramana religions

----------------
 
palindrome,

Thanks. I did not imply that my statement is relevant to your inquiry in to why the Universe was created. But some atheists/agnostics do believe that this will explain it, and hence the misnomer.

Regards,
KRS

Thanks for the wealth of info in post 314 sir. My post has no relevance to why universe was created. Wanted to know Sangom sir's view, if particles are illusions, since they (particles) exist whether we exist or not.
 
Thanks very much sir. Just some specific observations below.
Nirguna is not 'nothingness'. It is some entity that is beyond our senses and senses. Hence, nothing in the physical world viz., form, function and label applies to it.

But because of the theory of causation, something should have been responsible for the 'big bang'. 'Nothing', as we understand it, can not be a cause for what we call as 'creation'.
So then it would mean nirguna is something unknown, unknowable (beyond our senses). This conflicts with the premise that one could attain nirguna brahman. If our senses are designed within the relative real, if we live in the relative real, how cud one perceive the absolute real (nirguna); when it is 'unknown' and 'unknowable'.

This is where Guru Shankara explains about Jnana Yoga, in terms of how to know the Brahman. There are qualifications to be met by an aspirant as well as the four fold discipline one must follow to attain this knowledge. One has to combine both the intellectual and spiritual pursuit with discipline and discrimination to do this.
Sir, so far was thinking there is no One View on the locus of avidya in advaita. Read in another forum about Bhamati and Vivarana schools of advaita. Bhamati view is jeeva is locus of avidya. Vivarana view is brahman is locus of avidya. Which of these is correct is debated in places over the internet. Despite following all that you mention (by aspirants), there is contention on locus of avidya. The difference, imo, is either experiential or epistemological. Am not sure if samadhi means attaining nirguna brahman. Being completely self-absorbed such that all sense organs cease means a state of nothingness, becoming null. Whether this means a state of nirguna in terms of relative-real or absolute-real is unresolvable, i feel. Esp when nirguna is beyond everything.
 
Usually, some religions come in to being, because there is an inadequacy of an existing religion to the new converts, be it based on spiritual, political or social reasons.
Sir, the old world was made up of many thinkers. They thought, they propagated their views as a philosophy. Others (thinkers and followers) would join the group. A whole canon gets formed. The faith system over time, acquires laws, to govern its peoples (ie., followers), and becomes a religion.

So, in that sense, in my opinion, a new religion is born, is it does not accept the canonical authority of the original religion. Both Buddhism and Jainism do not accept the absolute authority of Vedas, and hence need to be deemed as separate religions from Hinduism.
Sir, am not sure if there was any one original religion. If philosophy or rituals alone could represent the term 'religion', then there wud be thousands of religions. Just a glimpse into the vast world of tantrism would reveal so.

Robert Brown introduces tantrism as a 'system' that is "not coherent, consisting of practices and ideas from various sources, distributed unevenly in different places, times, sects and individuals, with components of doctrines and practices found in other religious systems. A chief property of tantrism is its ability to blend. It can be easily mixed with non-tantric aspects such as bhakti (alongside tantric worship of a deity)". [The Roots of Tantra, p.1,2].

Phyllis Herman says tantrism is “a set of beliefs and practices that appear in a several religions” [The Roots of Tantra (back cover containing reviews)].

Gordon White describes tantrism as “a complex array of ritual, theoretical, and narrative strategies that are specific to their various religious, cultural, sociopolitical, geographical, and historical contexts” [White, David Gordon (2001). Tantra In Practice, p.5]

Buddhism and Jainism were formulated out of teachings of their masters, and philosophy or deities of tantrism (a diverse set of beliefs, also encompassing shramana tradition of renunciates).

Just because 'hinduism' also borrowed concepts of karma, moksha, from shramana / tantric traditions, does not mean buddhism and jainism are offshoots of hinduism, as some beleive here. From old world beliefs all these religions originated. These had nothing to do with vedic religion.
 
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Dear Sri C. Ravi Ji,

Usually, some religions come in to being, because there is an inadequacy of an existing religion to the new converts, be it based on spiritual, political or social reasons.

So, in that sense, in my opinion, a new religion is born, is it does not accept the canonical authority of the original religion. Both Buddhism and Jainism do not accept the absolute authority of Vedas, and hence need to be deemed as separate religions from Hinduism.

Please refer to my posting on this to Sri Jaykay767 Ji, on an anology of the Abrahamic religions.

Regards,
KRS
Dear KRS - Even if these religions came up because some of them were against the Vedas, it does not mean they are different. There is a lot of commonality among them, the core Karma theory - Life/Birth cycle, Liberation, etc., are the same. so they are joined at the Hip !! Similarly, Jewish, Christian & Islam are joined at the hip, this is a fact because there is a significant amount of commonality among them. Just because people will get upset, does not mean we don't state the facts. Satya meva Jayate !!. Cheers,
 
Some people want to claim Buddhism & Jainism are different because of the opposition to the Vedas conveniently forgetting the whole body of texts called Upanishads, Vedantas, etc..
 
Dear Sri Sangom Ji,

You said in post # 296:
Right from Adishankara's times people have been telling that Shankara destroyed the hold of Buddhism on the hindus; probably they were not as learned and well-informed as yourself, or they did not give much weightage to the brahman paternity/origin of these two teachers, Gowthama and Mahavira.

Please read this:
CONTRIBUTING FACTORS FOR THE DISAPPEARANCE OF BUDDHISM FROM INDIA | ANKUR BARUA - Academia.edu

This throws some light on the reasons why Buddhism declined in India and more importantly the attitude of Guru Shankara towards Buddhism. This is from a reputed academic scholar, wit no axe to grind.

Regards,
KRS
 
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