Dear Shri Sangom,
I must profusely thank you for these highly informative and insightful posts. I will try to get more info on the paishacha group.
Sir, i do agree that there was subjugation of shudras at some point or the other. This is evinced not only by the presence of PS (or its interpretation favoring the varna system) but by other writings / observations as well.
So far, from the evidence of
(1) the geographical location of the Shudras (north-west india) and
(2) the fact that the incoming hordes from the steppes were in conflict with them,
i do think that the early shudras mentioned in the Ramayana and Mahabharat were the Abhiras.
So far, from what i know, they are the only folk termed as Shudrabhira directly. Ofcourse, they must have had allies also termed as shudras (as a blanket term). I do not think the term Shudra was derogatory during the itihasa period (I think the Mahabharat was written over a long period of time). Ramayana only locates the Shudrabhira region and says nothing negative.
I do not think Shudra was a term 'created' by the indo-iranians either. The shudra tribe already existed as a kingdom (possibly living their lives as a perfectly respectable kingdom (??)).
It is interesting that the location of the Shudra kingdom is in the IVC region. The lives, the trades and the culture of the IVC is proving to be very interesting indeed from what has been gleaned so far (will be interesting with more to come).
These abhiras (or shudras) were not ethnically different from the indo-iranians. The cattle grazing shudra herdsmen only arrived before the indo-iranians into the indian land. And yes they were vedic (old aryan). To substantiate this, I wud wait for more research in the scytho-dravidian linguistic group. This wud help solve the puzzle of the pre-split days when vedic gods, Indra, varuNa and mitRa were considered to be asuras or ahuras.
Leads from the elamo-dravidian linguistic group wud also be needed. I suspect, these old aryans were associated with the atharva veda; as also with either the M9 (HapK) or the M69 (HapH) group, or both.
These old aryans were the people who forcibly admixed with the native hunting-fishing tribes (mundari-austroasiatic linguistic groups). So they were not the first arrivals into the indian heartland.
To me, the difference between both the indo-aryans (the abhiras or shudra-indians and indo-iranians) was merely based on political ideology created from cultural differences that prevailed at that time.
I do think the dharmashastras were written after the Shudras were defeated. The stance that a shudra must not listen to vedas (and all those punishments) must have come from laws enacted at that time.
I do not think prohibitting the "veda" in the dharmashastras relates to the veda (spiritual side) - i mean, if i were a king, i wud be happy if my enemy goes off in search of moksham rather than create a power-struggle problem for me.
Veda as a general term wud have also included the knowledge of the victorious kingdoms' functionaries. Say, today if india defeats pakistan and takes them as prisoners of law - are we going to share our military secrets with them? If they hear the secrets (or the veda at that time), would we not punish them?
I suppose the idea of cutting off tongue for speaking the secrets and making one deaf by pouring lac / lead for listening to the secrets, were the instituted penal law at that time, for such acts.
That however does not mean that such acts were continuously followed. There are clues to a slow and gradual assimilation of the subjugated tribes.
Wrt to occupations, the older writers such Panini called the Abhiras as Shudras and Katyayana called the Abhiras as Mahasudras. But later law-makers such as Manu, elevated cow-rearing and farming to the vaishya position. This would have meant that the (now mixed) folk came in contact with other indians as they moved into the indian heartland.
At the same time, the (now mixed) folk wud have also spread outward into southern europe and persia; from the region which today is Afghanistan-Pakistan-Gujarat-Rajasthan-Kashmir; so those folk were called mlecchas.
However, it is not necessary that there was just a single major move. People could very well have kept dribbling downward into the indian heartland (even during the vedic period resulting in acculturation of the indigenous folk) or moving outward into southern europe.
All ancient stuff. And irrelevant today i suppose.
More on your other points later..
I must profusely thank you for these highly informative and insightful posts. I will try to get more info on the paishacha group.
Sir, i do agree that there was subjugation of shudras at some point or the other. This is evinced not only by the presence of PS (or its interpretation favoring the varna system) but by other writings / observations as well.
Yes sir, i do think the PS was added into the RV after the time of Mahabharat (or perhaps even later (??)).If, therefore, we take the statements contained in the M. Bh.
to unravel who were the original SUdras, we will be trying to
look at what happened some 1000 or 1500 years before the M.
Bh. through its slOkas and that will only lead us to erroneous
conclusions. We will then have to concede that the PS was
interpolated into the RV after the time of M.Bh. This will be
highly improbable in view of the fact that there are
'anukRamaNis' which are supposed to be of the late vEdic
period. So, IMO, we should not consider the puraNa evidence
at all to decide a matter such as this.
So far, from the evidence of
(1) the geographical location of the Shudras (north-west india) and
(2) the fact that the incoming hordes from the steppes were in conflict with them,
i do think that the early shudras mentioned in the Ramayana and Mahabharat were the Abhiras.
So far, from what i know, they are the only folk termed as Shudrabhira directly. Ofcourse, they must have had allies also termed as shudras (as a blanket term). I do not think the term Shudra was derogatory during the itihasa period (I think the Mahabharat was written over a long period of time). Ramayana only locates the Shudrabhira region and says nothing negative.
I do not think Shudra was a term 'created' by the indo-iranians either. The shudra tribe already existed as a kingdom (possibly living their lives as a perfectly respectable kingdom (??)).
It is interesting that the location of the Shudra kingdom is in the IVC region. The lives, the trades and the culture of the IVC is proving to be very interesting indeed from what has been gleaned so far (will be interesting with more to come).
These abhiras (or shudras) were not ethnically different from the indo-iranians. The cattle grazing shudra herdsmen only arrived before the indo-iranians into the indian land. And yes they were vedic (old aryan). To substantiate this, I wud wait for more research in the scytho-dravidian linguistic group. This wud help solve the puzzle of the pre-split days when vedic gods, Indra, varuNa and mitRa were considered to be asuras or ahuras.
Leads from the elamo-dravidian linguistic group wud also be needed. I suspect, these old aryans were associated with the atharva veda; as also with either the M9 (HapK) or the M69 (HapH) group, or both.
These old aryans were the people who forcibly admixed with the native hunting-fishing tribes (mundari-austroasiatic linguistic groups). So they were not the first arrivals into the indian heartland.
To me, the difference between both the indo-aryans (the abhiras or shudra-indians and indo-iranians) was merely based on political ideology created from cultural differences that prevailed at that time.
I do think the dharmashastras were written after the Shudras were defeated. The stance that a shudra must not listen to vedas (and all those punishments) must have come from laws enacted at that time.
I do not think prohibitting the "veda" in the dharmashastras relates to the veda (spiritual side) - i mean, if i were a king, i wud be happy if my enemy goes off in search of moksham rather than create a power-struggle problem for me.
Veda as a general term wud have also included the knowledge of the victorious kingdoms' functionaries. Say, today if india defeats pakistan and takes them as prisoners of law - are we going to share our military secrets with them? If they hear the secrets (or the veda at that time), would we not punish them?
I suppose the idea of cutting off tongue for speaking the secrets and making one deaf by pouring lac / lead for listening to the secrets, were the instituted penal law at that time, for such acts.
That however does not mean that such acts were continuously followed. There are clues to a slow and gradual assimilation of the subjugated tribes.
Wrt to occupations, the older writers such Panini called the Abhiras as Shudras and Katyayana called the Abhiras as Mahasudras. But later law-makers such as Manu, elevated cow-rearing and farming to the vaishya position. This would have meant that the (now mixed) folk came in contact with other indians as they moved into the indian heartland.
At the same time, the (now mixed) folk wud have also spread outward into southern europe and persia; from the region which today is Afghanistan-Pakistan-Gujarat-Rajasthan-Kashmir; so those folk were called mlecchas.
However, it is not necessary that there was just a single major move. People could very well have kept dribbling downward into the indian heartland (even during the vedic period resulting in acculturation of the indigenous folk) or moving outward into southern europe.
All ancient stuff. And irrelevant today i suppose.
More on your other points later..
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