renuka
Well-known member
This post does not address whether Sudras were being taught vedas or not, but the fallacy masquerading as logic.
In mathematical terms, if "T" is truth and "B" is Brahmin, this can be shortened as T = B is the first assumption.
Nowhere it states that other varnas are incapable of speaking the truth. Please adduce evidence. The equation only says T = B, it does not state anywhere non B = non T. This extension is used just to load the argument in one's favour.
There is no overlooking of anything, because no one said non B = non T. So it is an attempt to derive a logical conclusion from an illogical or ungiven premise.
Continuation of fallacy. Truthfulness or otherwise of others are not at all flowing from the basic assumption.
The wording "it looks as if" is presumptive in nature. It might be legitimate or illegitimate in nature. There is also no mention of any force or coercion applied on Satyakama's mother for the supposed "illicit" act. All that is confirms is a consensual act. No one is casting aspersions on her. So there is neither virtue nor vice in the supposed "illicit" act, if it was indeed an illicit act.
On the one hand you say the truthful nature of Satyakama's father is *no special virtue* and the whole society did it, but in the next you say Satyakama should be honoured because he was truthful. As honouring is done normally only for exceptional acts, attitudes and aptitudes, does this mean by reverse logic that Sudras were not normally truth speakers?
Whatever it may be, there is no mention of truth speakers or untruth speakers of other varnas in that passage so it is more of a circular logic.
There are two ungiven assumptions hoisted in the theme.
(i) Learning vedas was mandated to be a Hindu. All the recorded evidences disprove this.
(ii) Mere non-learning of vedas with-held the status or right to Hinduism.
Neither of the statements are true.
Further, how many stories would make it "chunky" to be considered as "norm" rather than one or two stories?
Is it anywhere mentioned in vedas that "ALL" brahmins learned the vedas? I in fact find contrary passages where it is expressly stated that they neither learnt the vedas nor did any sacrifice. So why it cant be dismissed from the contrary passages that brahmins learnt the vedas?
Such logic is termed in legal parlance as attempt to shift to convenience of data in one's favour.
Sri Sangom has has also said either in this thread or elsewhere that Tantra system was the more prevalent form of worship among the non vedic population. History also tells us that many forms of tantra worship were learnt and practiced by brahmins. Though there are "one" or "twp" recorded tales of them being targeted in the past, there is no stigma attached at least to the present right handed tantra practices.
Though only *one* or *two* incidences of ostracism is reported it is not being dismissively used as mere one or two incidences in the same way the veda learning is dismissed.
For me, the story is more of a patriarchal bias of the society prevailing then...
I rather call a Spade a Spade.
You see I have absolutely no problems if a Non Dwija is not entitled to learn Vedas etc..cos the actual need for even a God is a very individualized decision and its just sort of some mental security for a person to sail thru life..God is an anti depressant. So Vedic or Non-Vedic..anti depressants exists..Prozac and all!
Its just that people should be brave enough to state as Sangom Ji stated "I am only saying that the vedas and the religion which evolved therefrom excluded Sudras from its ambit completely"
Anything else not echoing similar sentiments would not be anywhere near the truth.
No one is going to blame the Dwijas for this..its not a form is discrimination but it can be accepted as rules of the Vedic religion and may be Non Diwjas can opt for some other form of worship.
I hope you get what I am trying to say.