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purushasuktam - varna

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Then on what basis have you offered interpretations for those verses?
Please find below:

स्वभावं एश नारिनाम इह दूशणं|
तो अर्थान प्रमाद्यन्ति प्रमदासुविपाश्रित: ||

Am splitting this up as follows:

स्वभावं /एश/ नारिनाम/इह/दूशणं/अतः/अर्थान/न /प्रमाद्यन्ति/प्रमदा/सु/विप/आश्रित:


English meaning:

Inherent nature/this/of women/is/contaminative(weak)/therefore/by this reason/do not/intoxicate/young women/very or much or proper/learned man/dwell or inhabit

It makes more sense now.

Putting together in a sentence

This inherent nature of women is (by virtue of) contaminative. Therefore, due to this reason, the well-learned do not intoxicate by dwelling on young women.

Note: विप + आश्रित: = विपाश्रित:, and

प्रमदा + सु + विप + आश्रित: = प्रमदासुविपाश्रित:

Now let us come to the meaning:

First he says that there is an inherent nature. What is this? It is not any individual character the verse talks about. Rather, it is about a general nature which is common to women. Since it does not indicate anything here, we have no clue as to that 'inherent nature' which is 'contaminating'. (Note, he does not say that women are dhooshanam!)

Then we have a clue from the next line. प्रमाद्यन्ति derived from प्रामाद्य which means intoxication (related to the Dhattura plant also). Therefore there is an inherent nature in women which causes intoxication. Therefore it must be her beauty - but again, beauty can be of two kinds viz, physical and mental (intellectual). It can be either alone or in combination, but then it can apply to men equally, so the verse must denote both, but with greater emphasis on the physical beauty/charm.

This charm then is dhooshanam - he says. Why? The answer, again, is in the next line - it is because this charm has an intoxicating effect. If we are intoxicated, then we forget who we are, our status and our knowledge and our esteem. Intoxication also gives pleasure but as it progresses, it captivates our senses.

Thus effectively, the first verse says that the charm, which is inherent in women is of a contaminating nature.

Now, we will come to the second line:

For this reason, mentioned above, the well-learned do not dwell on young women. What does dwell mean here? Does it indicate physical proximity? Of course, because only then can the charm apply. But then, that alone will not intoxicate unless it goes into one's mind. Therefore 'dwell' must be construed to mean 'frequenting the mind by thoughts of young women. Why young women? Why not women in general. I can also connect प्रमाद्यन्ति with प्रमदा which gives another meaning that young women are intoxicating. Also a young woman has more charm (a general acceptance) - do we not say 'sweet sixteen'?

Thus the second verse indicates - 'The well-learned do not frequent/indulge their mind with the thoughts of a young woman which will intoxicate.

In totality, it means that due to the inherent charm, which is by itself a contamination (for others), do not indulge easily in the pleasures of a young woman for it is intoxicating.

It cannot be construed to mean that women are dhooshanam and therefore do not LIVE near them. That is contradictory. In audit, there is a concept called 'going-concern concept', which means that the audit is done assuming that the business is likely to continue in future. (Note: this is an analogy).

Similarly, the union of a man and woman cannot be condemned (as it is natural). So, the verse here indicates that it is not in the normal sense, but easy/frequent indulgence in the pleasures of a woman which would cloud his mind (for that is what happens when intoxicated).

Over to you, happyhindu.

P.S. There are other ways of interpreting this verse also. But I will wait for your comments on this. :)

Regards,
 
So, now your grudge is with the language; are you ok with the intent then?

Yes, Saptha, that would be acceptable -- if the intent was not to demean women, a great law giver must take care not to offend without cause.

Thiruvalluvar spends 20 kurals dealing with how men must act towards women. I disagree with many aspects of what he says in these 2 kurals, but he did not use degrading language against women. He was a great law giver too.

So, yes, the intent to be on guard is alright, but the language is nasty.

Cheers!
 
In fact I need to ask you the very same question. I posed a question some time back as to what is discriminatory in those two lines of the Purusa sukta. I never got an answer.

Sorry Anand, I thought I answered this several times that this verse, even if there is no overt discrimination, must bear responsibility in as much as this is the earliest mention of varna, and the smrithees, that derive their validity from Shruthi, have discrimination as the corner piece.

Also, the very body parts associated with different Varnas, and feet for Shudra makes this verse quite offensive.

Just the mention of the varnas does not amount to discrimination. There is nothing to imply that one varna is superior to another.
It is one thing for a Brahmin to say there is no discrimination. But ask a Shudra what he thinks of this verse. Saying that he is misinterpreting does not wash as we see Varna based discrimination all around. So, if there is misinterpretation, it is on the part of those who claim there is no discrimination.

If a verse is so badly susceptible to misinterpretation just throw it out. As a first step, would you be in favor of throwing out Manu, as an individual?

Cheers!
 
happhindu, I found this verse also:

स्वभाव एष नारीणां नराणाम् इह दूषणम्
अतो अर्थान् न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु विपश्चित: (Vipaschithaha)

Now the meaning slightly changes...!!!:)
 
Yes, Saptha, that would be acceptable -- if the intent was not to demean women, a great law giver must take care not to offend without cause........
So, yes, the intent to be on guard is alright, but the language is nasty.
No sir, there is no offence; it all depends on how we perceive it. Depending on the translations could be misleading at times!

As long as you agree with the intent, it is only a matter of syntax which bothers you. This could probably be clarified by the language of the original smrithis!!!

Regards,
 
....
meaning that young women are intoxicating. Also a young woman has more charm (a general acceptance) - do we not say 'sweet sixteen'?

until I came to this line I thought by charm you were talking about mental charm. The charm of sweet sixteen is almost always physical.

Manu must surely have very low opinion of the control men can have in these matters. I am just back from a vacation where everywhere I turned there were scantily clad young women frolicking. While this was pleasant :nod:, it did not make me go crazy.

Manu could have just said be wary of temptation or carnal desires or some such thing. Why say दूशणं ? Ordinary folks like ourselves wish not to offend, a great law giver uses offensive language when there was no need. Once again citing Thiruvalluvar, கனியிருப்ப காய்கவர்ந்தற்ற.

Cheers!
 
until I came to this line I thought by charm you were talking about mental charm. The charm of sweet sixteen is almost always physical.
Ha ha ha... I was only trying to give a meaning on the words quoted by hh. If any dhooshanam is there, it is mine and not of Manu.

I have come across another verse (refer my other post to hh) which is different from what hh has quoted. It says, 'Naranaam iha dhooshanam'!!! Weakness of men!!

Your mental imagery of Manu as a tyrant was based on the omission of the word 'Naranaam' from the first line. Now, it is quite different; and the meaning is not unpleasant, neither does it denigrate women!

In sanskrit, the adjustment/shifting/omission of a word/syllable from its original placement could mean something quite differently. Which is why guidance of a guru is always needed (whether we know or do not know sanskrit) to understand the smrithis.

Now what have you got to say?:)

Regards,

Oh! And I forgot to add - My original interpretaion would hold good, even in the second verse. But with some changes, one of which I have mentioned in this post. (men are weak!) :)
 
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happyhindu, I am thinking that प्रमदासु must be a vibakthi, but there is some confusion as प्रमद is different from प्रमदा, which is a noun. Also the position of सु could mean differently. It is not easy to decide which is right.

The first verse, स्वभाव एष नारीणां नराणाम् इह दूषणम्

now translates to - The inherent nature of women is a weakness to men.

Similarly विपाश्रित: is different from विपश्चित:

Now, the second line

अतो अर्थान् न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु विपश्चित:

could mean,

The learned do not carelessly intoxicate (indulge).

Combined, they mean that mean are weak due to the inherent charms of women, therefore the learned do not carelessly intoxicate (in the pleasures of women).

What happens if I put the second verse as below?

अतो अर्थान् न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदा सुविपश्चित: (so प्रमाध्यन्ति will read with प्रमदा to give 'intoxication of young women') which would convey then, that 'Therefore, for this reason, the well-learned do not intoxicate (themselves) on women'.
.....................................

Above all, we must know whether the verse we are quoting is the original verse!

It is better to avoid qualifying Manu as a tyrant or misogynist or MCP before even we try to understand properly.

Regards,
 
To clarify - the sanskrit verse quoted by hh is incorrect; the verse should read as:

स्वभाव एष नारीणां नराणाम् इह दूषणम्
अतो अर्थान् न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु विपश्चित:

or

स्वभाव एष नारीणां नराणामिह दूषणम्
अतोर्थान्न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु विपश्चित:

The first verse is as per my previous post. For the second,

प्रमदासु means 'in women' (used as a locative sense), and hence

प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु - would mean intoxication in women.

Thus, the second verse would mean,

The wise/learned men do not seek (or indulge in) intoxication/pleasures in young women.

................................
 
... If any dhooshanam is there, it is mine and not of Manu.

OK, how should I interpret this "dooshanam" :)

Dear Saptha, advising men to be alert is one thing, but even if Manu did not intend any offense to women -- but I think Manu meant dhooshanam in a very bad sense as only that would consistent with his treatment of women in general -- he erred by using words that give offense. A great scholar like him would have easily used precise language without causing offense if he wanted to.

As I said earlier, we are not talking here about some esoteric concept that requires deep thinking and analysis. All that is being said is lusting after women is quite bad. Even I can convey this thought without using degrading language.

Cheers!
 
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....
I wonder how iyengars are following manusmrithi. Manu forbids brideprice in no simple terms but some iyengar weddings continue the practice of bride price to this day.


Dear HH, I am not aware of bride price among Iyengars. Iyengars, like many other castes, have dowry and Shri Dhanam, provided by the bride's family. This practice is no more or no less prevalent among Iyengars as other castes, I think.

I have never heard of bride price, presumably paid by the bridegroom side within the Iyengar caste.

Cheers!
 
Saptha,

The basic premise (the methodology) in which you are making (your own) fanciful intrepretations is incorrect.

1) If you want it to have some semblence of credibility, please break down that whole verse into individual dhatu-sounds first.

2) Then provide the root sound meaning of each word (with the context in which you intend to use them, without deviating from the original set of meanings of the root words).

3) And then explain the meaning of the full verse (and finally explain how your interpretation fits in).

Those meanings (your own POVs) will not be accepted by any sampradayam unless you provide all of the above for the whole verse.

If you do the above, i will show your verse to the monks and ask them if it can be held as a valid interpretation.

No need to write pages and pages of fanciful stuff by simply saying the meaning of dooshanam, pramada, etc. Everyone knows meanings.

Without the root sound breakdown of the entire verse, all you explanations will be considered invalid.

Nor can you create a context of your own, assign it to the verse; and claim that this is what Manu would have meant.

Am reminded of this note of yours to Raghy http://www.tamilbrahmins.com/genera...te-system-weakness-hinduism-33.html#post38415 :
If, I, an agnyani can see another meaning, imagine the plethora of options before a Panditha! Also, the meanings could be highly contextual, symbolic, and mostly having an inner meaning.
Anyone who knows the basics of allegorical terminology derivation in sanskrit language wud not put it as though a pandit has a plethora of options.

Its known that a verse can have allegorical / metaphorical meaning; but a pandit cannot derive additional meanings unless the verse itself is constructed using compounded words alluding to that effect. And neither can he derive meanings based on his own imagined contexts.

Methinks, only those who do not know sanskrit will fall for your explanations (its a peronal pov).

Anyways, am writing down the incorrections here:

Please find below:

स्वभावं एश नारिनाम इह दूशणं|
तो अर्थान प्रमाद्यन्ति प्रमदासुविपाश्रित: ||

Am splitting this up as follows:

स्वभावं /एश/ नारिनाम/इह/दूशणं/अतः/अर्थान/न /प्रमाद्यन्ति/प्रमदा/सु/विप/आश्रित:


English meaning:

Inherent nature/this/of women/is/contaminative(weak)/therefore/by this reason/do not/intoxicate/young women/very or much or proper/learned man/dwell or inhabit

It makes more sense now.

Putting together in a sentence

This inherent nature of women is (by virtue of) contaminative. Therefore, due to this reason, the well-learned do not intoxicate by dwelling on young women.

Note: विप + आश्रित: = विपाश्रित:, and

प्रमदा + सु + विप + आश्रित: = प्रमदासुविपाश्रित:

Now let us come to the meaning:

First he says that there is an inherent nature. What is this? It is not any individual character the verse talks about. Rather, it is about a general nature which is common to women. Since it does not indicate anything here, we have no clue as to that 'inherent nature' which is 'contaminating'. (Note, he does not say that women are dhooshanam!)

स्वभावं एश नारिनाम इह दूषनम

The verse clearly says स्वभावं (svabhavam, nature) एश नारिनाम इह दूषनम (Naarinam eha dooshanam) - simple as that.

And dooshanam's meaning is plain and clear - it means faulty / contaminating.

So he means it as simple as that - women's nature is faulty, contaminating.

What is the meaning of providing this part:
Note: विप + आश्रित: = विपाश्रित:, and प्रमदा + सु + विप + आश्रित: = प्रमदासुविपाश्रित:

In what way have you used it in your explanation above?

Then we have a clue from the next line. प्रमाद्यन्ति derived from प्रामाद्य which means intoxication (related to the Dhattura plant also). Therefore there is an inherent nature in women which causes intoxication. Therefore it must be her beauty - but again, beauty can be of two kinds viz, physical and mental (intellectual). It can be either alone or in combination, but then it can apply to men equally, so the verse must denote both, but with greater emphasis on the physical beauty/charm.
He mentions the word pramadyanti (i already gave the meaning of pramada). He does not say anything about a woman's beauty, intellect.

There is no single word in that phrase that can be broken down into dhatu words that allude to a woman's beauty or intellect (like in soundarya lahiri).

Please provide the dhatu words if you think they exist in that verse.

That verse merely says प्रमाद्यन्ति प्रमदासुविपाश्रित: women cause pramada to learned men - plain and simple.

If you wish to think that a verse "must denote both" and that too thing "with a greater emphasis" on physical beauty / charm, then you must explain how. Not by claiming. But by proving from the sentence-construction that the words (dhatus) are usable that way.

No root-sound derivation in sanskrit permits usage in one's own context. Every root sound has to mean only its fixed meanings. {already gave example about the sound dhi - you cannot use it to mean beauty. Its fixed meanings are intellect, intelligence, thought, etc}

Similarly Pramada means only Pramada - there is no other word in that verse that means beauty, intellect or any kind of sookshanam that you mentioned before.

It would have been different if that verse had mentioned a naari's soundaryam and then warned a man. But obviously he didn't. And moreover, if a woman is beautiful and intelligent - so what? And why learned men must stay away from women?

If one can make up own meanings like you have, a male teenager with a hormone rush can easily make up a 1001 meanings.

This charm then is dhooshanam - he says. Why? The answer, again, is in the next line - it is because this charm has an intoxicating effect. If we are intoxicated, then we forget who we are, our status and our knowledge and our esteem. Intoxication also gives pleasure but as it progresses, it captivates our senses.
You saying their charm is dooshanam ?!! So a woman being called faulty, defective, contaminated, is her charm ??

And dooshanam is not even used colloquially - its meaning is always fixed as a negative connotation.

Anyone can think that such an interpretation is that of a misogynist, not just a chauvanist.

Thankgod the verse did not say that. There is nothing in the dhatu-construction of that verse which can allude to such a meaning either.

Thus effectively, the first verse says that the charm, which is inherent in women is of a contaminating nature.
Which dhatu sound in the verse refers to 'charm'?

Now, we will come to the second line:

For this reason, mentioned above, the well-learned do not dwell on young women. What does dwell mean here? Does it indicate physical proximity? Of course, because only then can the charm apply. But then, that alone will not intoxicate unless it goes into one's mind. Therefore 'dwell' must be construed to mean 'frequenting the mind by thoughts of young women. Why young women? Why not women in general. I can also connect प्रमाद्यन्ति with प्रमदा which gives another meaning that young women are intoxicating. Also a young woman has more charm (a general acceptance) - do we not say 'sweet sixteen'?

Thus the second verse indicates - 'The well-learned do not frequent/indulge their mind with the thoughts of a young woman which will intoxicate.
!!! Quite a fanciful interpretation. Really creative, must say!!. Where does the verse indicate that?

In totality, it means that due to the inherent charm, which is by itself a contamination (for others), do not indulge easily in the pleasures of a young woman for it is intoxicating.

It cannot be construed to mean that women are dhooshanam and therefore do not LIVE near them. That is contradictory. In audit, there is a concept called 'going-concern concept', which means that the audit is done assuming that the business is likely to continue in future. (Note: this is an analogy).
What i have underlined is what the verse means literally. You have not provided any dhatu-break down to substantiate your (fanciful) interpretation. First please provide the break-down of the words in that verse, individually. Then explain.

Similarly, the union of a man and woman cannot be condemned (as it is natural). So, the verse here indicates that it is not in the normal sense, but easy/frequent indulgence in the pleasures of a woman which would cloud his mind (for that is what happens when intoxicated).
Who says unions are condemnable? And how do you know the verse is "not in the normal sense". Which words (or even dhatus) in the verse are indicative of such a meaning?

The verse simply says learned men must not dwell near naaris (women) because their nature is dooshanam (faulty, defective, contaminating).

Did Adi shankara's not live around ubhaya bharati? Did he not give audience to women? Were women in the 8th century kept away from learned men?

Just look at the language used in that verse (compare it with the kind of sanskrit used by Adi Shankara). Clearly, those verses (in unpolished non-erudite plain language) were inserted into the Manusmrithi after the 8th century.

And what have you today? Mutts (claiming to be the orthodoxy) do not permit women to study vedas (why ?) Where have such things been mentioned in the shruti. Clearly this verse contradicts the shruti.

P.S. There are other ways of interpreting this verse also. But I will wait for your comments on this. :)

Regards,
Please go ahead and mention those other ways of interpreting. Am getting a good idea of how it has been so easy to fool the masses using scriptures.

And now i think its better for every hindu to know sanskrit, with a strong basis on dhatus, compounds and grammatical construction, lest they get duped by such likes.

And i thank arya samaj for imparting sanskrit education to all. Jai ho arya samaj.

Regards.
 
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happhindu, I found this verse also:

स्वभाव एष नारीणां नराणाम् इह दूषणम्
अतो अर्थान् न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु विपश्चित: (Vipaschithaha)

Now the meaning slightly changes...!!!:)

How does it change? Please explain.
 
:)

happyhindu, I am thinking that प्रमदासु must be a vibakthi, but there is some confusion as प्रमद is different from प्रमदा, which is a noun. Also the position of सु could mean differently. It is not easy to decide which is right.

:) If you are a pandit, it shd be easy. Its basic sanskrit after all.

The first verse, स्वभाव एष नारीणां नराणाम् इह दूषणम्

now translates to - The inherent nature of women is a weakness to men.

Similarly विपाश्रित: is different from विपश्चित:

Now, the second line

अतो अर्थान् न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु विपश्चित:

could mean,

The learned do not carelessly intoxicate (indulge).

Combined, they mean that mean are weak due to the inherent charms of women, therefore the learned do not carelessly intoxicate (in the pleasures of women).
First clarify the meaning of विपश्चित: Break it down into its root meaning (if it can be). Then explain.

Also explain how different it is from the root meaning of विपाश्रित:

Without doing that, no need to presume about what the verse "could mean" please.

What happens if I put the second verse as below?

अतो अर्थान् न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदा सुविपश्चित: (so प्रमाध्यन्ति will read with प्रमदा to give 'intoxication of young women') which would convey then, that 'Therefore, for this reason, the well-learned do not intoxicate (themselves) on women'.
How wud it convey? Please explain with the meaning (or root meaning) of the words used.

Above all, we must know whether the verse we are quoting is the original verse!

It is better to avoid qualifying Manu as a tyrant or misogynist or MCP before even we try to understand properly.

Regards,
I already mentioned that this verse (and the next verses following it) are considered an interpolations. But you have given this verse a very fanciful intrepretation.

Now am keen to know the basis of your interpretation, so that i can take it to the monks for their explanations.

Btw, i did not qualify Manu as a misogynist. But its your interpretations that wud fit a misogynist (and that's my personal pov).

To clarify - the sanskrit verse quoted by hh is incorrect; the verse should read as:

स्वभाव एष नारीणां नराणाम् इह दूषणम्
अतो अर्थान् न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु विपश्चित:

or

स्वभाव एष नारीणां नराणामिह दूषणम्
अतोर्थान्न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु विपश्चित:

The verse is given here: Manu Smriti - Sanskrit Text With English Translation

Please let me know your source of these two verses you have stated.

And how can अतो अर्थान् प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु विपश्चित: change to अतोर्थान्न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु विपश्चित: ?

The न [na] (no) is missing from the 2nd verse you have provided. Am wondering which source can mention such an either-or thing (that the verse should read either as the 1st one or as the 2nd one)?

Please provide the source of your verses before proceeding further.

Since the first verse is now dependent on your source, can you proceed to provide the basis (dhatu derivation) for your interpretation of the 2nd verse (as provided in blue):

Avidvansam alam lokay vidvansam api va punah| pramada hrutpatam naytum kaam-krodhvashaanugam||
Manusmrithi 2.214

My interpretation: This, if you analyze closely, demeans menfolk; that men are of such weak disposition that, irrespective of their knowledge, they can become slave to their desires. How is this discriminatory?!

Also note that this verse 2.214 follows the verse 2.213 which we were discussing so long.

Saptha, if the verse 2.213 is modified to disinclude the न [na] (no) in your source, than it should be tallying with the set of verses that follow it, that is verses 2.214 and 2.215. Am therefore very keen to have a look at your source mentioning the verses as you have stated.

Regards.
 
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happyhindu, seeing your cheap responses above, I do not think, I can have any meaningful dialogue in the context of the earlier discussions.

You do not want to understand - that is my inference. As simple as that.

You have gone offensive without pausing to look at the gaping mistakes which you have done.

I shall list them:

You have taken a wrong verse
Then, interpreted it incorrectly
Even when shown the correct verse, the reluctance to accept it

I shall address your queries as follows:
Without the root sound breakdown of the entire verse, all you explanations will be considered invalid.
1) If you want it to have some semblence of credibility, please break down that whole verse into individual dhatu-sounds first.

2) Then provide the root sound meaning of each word (with the context in which you intend to use them, without deviating from the original set of meanings of the root words).

3) And then explain the meaning of the full verse (and finally explain how your interpretation fits in).
Did you do that for your interpretations?

As far as I know, you have been saying -'Those who know sanskrit will know this' or 'this is basic sanskrit which we did in our school days'...

Why dont you lead by example???

Please do that for your interpretation and then ask me.... I will willingly oblige...:)

No need to write pages and pages of fanciful stuff by simply saying the meaning of dooshanam, pramada, etc. Everyone knows meanings.
Really, then you must have known what 'Pramada' is!!!!

First clarify the meaning of विपश्चित: Break it down into its root meaning (if it can be). Then explain.
What happened to 'vipashritah'??????????????

I ask you to do the same thing. Where did you get your meaning from????

Also explain how different it is from the root meaning of विपाश्रित:
Ah, so here it is.... if you are a 'pandithayin', you should know it...:)

The न [na] (no) is missing from the 2nd verse you have provided. Am wondering which source can mention such an either-or thing (that the verse should read either as the 1st one or as the 2nd one)?
Now I must ask if you know sanskrit at all!!! If you know you should be able to figure out where the second 'n' is...:)
Methinks, only those who do not know sanskrit will fall for your explanations (its a peronal pov).
Please go ahead and clarify my interpretation with a sanskrit pandit. I am tired of your hot air.

The rest of your post is either a repetition or empty retorts. I leave them out.

You seem to be having an ego problem here in accepting something which is in apparent contradiction to your held belief. If needed, I can give the explanations along with the roots. However, seeing the manner of your retorts, it is unlikely that you have the generousity to accept gracefully.

For you to ask me to break down into dhathus, first you should have done that. I just see you writing 'simple, it means just that'!!! You have conveniently ignored ;Naranaam' from the first line. You have missed observing where the second 'na' is in the second line. You dont know what 'Pramada' means!!! To top it all, you still aggressively question me.

There is one important thing - How did you assume that your interpretation (from whichever reference it is taken from)is correct.
 
Brahma Rishi vishwamitra's tapas were broken by women.
Considering the recent hot news about a 75 year old man who was in a respectable position- in Andhra, fortunately Manu is not here. Otherwise, he must have written something which would have attracted women's wrath. I remember famous writer Sujata. For a question "why a girl looks beautiful and attractive?". He answered "the girl looks beautiful because of her parents. She looks attractive because of your harmones".
:)
Cheers!
 
Brahma Rishi vishwamitra's tapas were broken by women.
Considering the recent hot news about a 75 year old man who was in a respectable position- in Andhra, fortunately Manu is not here. Otherwise, he must have written something which would have attracted women's wrath. I remember famous writer Sujata. For a question "why a girl looks beautiful and attractive?". He answered "the girl looks beautiful because of her parents. She looks attractive because of your harmones".
:)
Cheers!

Sri.PVR,

You are right. Is it so hard to control the senses in the presence of a very pretty woman? I don't think so. We all have some kind of interaction during all the time in our time. Our harmones go haywire during the teen years and early 20s. I don't think we act indecently towards the girls even in those years. It looks like we have achieved the control of our senses and act more responsibly than the learned wise persons of Manu period. we acted with civility with out reading Manu sasthra at our prime age, didn't we?

Cheers!
 
happyhindu, seeing your cheap responses above, I do not think, I can have any meaningful dialogue in the context of the earlier discussions.
Saptha, coming from you, its expected. Just provide the allegorical-derivation, and i will have nothing to question you about. If you don't do that, your interpretations will be considered fanciful.

You do not want to understand - that is my inference. As simple as that.
Please provide a dhatu breakdown (if there are compund words) whereever they apply in the verse. Then explain. That's all. No need to speculate.

You have gone offensive without pausing to look at the gaping mistakes which you have done.
Which are the mistakes i have done. I only provided meaning of the words and the literal translation, that's all.

You are the one's that has provided fanciful interpretations (and have not provided the basis on which you made them yet).

I shall list them:

You have taken a wrong verse
Then, interpreted it incorrectly
Even when shown the correct verse, the reluctance to accept it
The verse i provided is the one commonly used by all historians (see the last para in this post). Let me know the source of the verses you have provided. Why shd i have any reluctance to accept it? Am only requesting you to please provide the source of your verse (PLEASE, am really requesting you). If there is an other version of the manusmrithi, i wud really be interested.

Please can you show me where have i interpreted something. I have merely given the literal translation.

If my gurus had interpreted these verses for me, i wud have definitely shared it here.

I shall address your queries as follows:
Did you do that for your interpretations?
What interpretation? I have merely given the literal translation. My gurus were not able to infer anything allegorical from those verses.

As far as I know, you have been saying -'Those who know sanskrit will know this' or 'this is basic sanskrit which we did in our school days'...

Why dont you lead by example???
i gave the verses with literal meanings - because those words are not considered to be of allegorical nature. The words are plain and simple, no compunded stuff. Only the straight (literal) meaning applies in such cases. Then, how to make interpretations out of it?

But you have interpreted them in fanciful ways (even brought ramayana period into the pic). And all i am doing is to question your basis of doing so.

If everyone starts imagining meanings out of context like you have, then we will have endless meanings for every verse, which the author did not intend at all.

No idea if there is any language / grammer in the world which allows anyone to create out of context meanings, out of any writing, like you have.

Please do that for your interpretation and then ask me.... I will willingly oblige...:)
i did not even offer any interpretation of any verse. It is you who has given interpretations. So it is you who has to explain how did you create those interpretations.

Really, then you must have known what 'Pramada' is!!!!
i already wrote the meaning of pramada in my first post itself http://www.tamilbrahmins.com/philosophy-scriptures/2222-purushasuktam-varna-5.html#post38425 . i was wondering what was the necessity for you to provide the meaning of the words again without dhatu-derivations in the context of the interpretion you offered.

What happened to 'vipashritah'??????????????
Why are you asking me to provide the meaning? For that, you can very well look up the dictionary.

All i am asking is how can you break these words down into dhatu elements (root words) and interpret it in the context of the meaning you have offered.

I ask you to do the same thing. Where did you get your meaning from????
Its the literal meaning. I already mentioned that. And if you have any doubt, please take the trouble to look up a dictionary.

Ah, so here it is.... if you are a 'pandithayin', you should know it...
Saptha, if you can offer the dhatu-derivation, please do. That's all. Somehow i am begining to feel as though i am now actually calling your bluff. So long i was thinking, it wud be great if you cud offer the dhatu-derivations so i cud ask the monks abt it (because they cudn't offer any explanation or dhatu-derivations for those verses).

Now I must ask if you know sanskrit at all!!! If you know you should be able to figure out where the second 'n' is...
Please go ahead and clarify my interpretation with a sanskrit pandit. I am tired of your hot air.
Hold on saptha.

Instead of making accusations, just give me the source of these verses you have mentioned below:

(How come a "na" is missing in that verse? I really do want to know from where you got these verses. And am really requesting you for the source, because it is important.. ofcourse you will know that having an other version of the Manusmrithi is not a simple matter, esp to historians):

Originally Posted by sapthajihva
To clarify - the sanskrit verse quoted by hh is incorrect; the verse should read as:

स्वभाव एष नारीणां नराणाम् इह दूषणम्
अतो अर्थान् न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु विपश्चित:

or

स्वभाव एष नारीणां नराणामिह दूषणम्
अतोर्थान्न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु विपश्चित:
You seem to be having an ego problem here in accepting something which is in apparent contradiction to your held belief. If needed, I can give the explanations along with the roots. However, seeing the manner of your retorts, it is unlikely that you have the generousity to accept gracefully.
Please do that first (in bold). If you had provided me with the dhatu-derivations (if the words can be broken down to dhatus, that is), why wud i even ask you for the logic / reasoning of your meanings so long.

For you to ask me to break down into dhathus, first you should have done that. I just see you writing 'simple, it means just that'!!!
Goodness. How can i do that if those verses are not breakable into dhatus. And anyone who knows basic sanskrit, wud have recognized that straight away. Which is why i was wondering how you cud create fanciful interpretaions of your own.

You have conveniently ignored ;Naranaam' from the first line.
Its naarinaam not, naranaam (unless we are talking shri Nara :D ). And where did i miss it or ignore it?

You have missed observing where the second 'na' is in the second line.
As soon as you provided those new verses, i am asking you for their source since it does not have the 'na'. Where the question of 'missing' it.

You dont know what 'Pramada' means!!! To top it all, you still aggressively question me.
Are you sure? Already provided the meaning for pramada the very first time i questioned you: http://www.tamilbrahmins.com/philosophy-scriptures/2222-purushasuktam-varna-5.html#post38425

What's the need to agressively question you. So long i was thinking you are going to provide the allegorical meaning since you offered such fanciful interpretations. Now i think perhaps i ..(well forget it)...

There is one important thing - How did you assume that your interpretation (from whichever reference it is taken from)is correct.
Because there is only one sanskrit version of the manusmrithi. And that's the one used commonly by authors in their work so far (like Shastri, 1997 and Pandey, 1998). The same version has been translated in sacredtexts.com, and has also been provided on other online places (like scribd, hinduwebsite.com, etc) so far.

But you have provided verses that are different. So far in some versions, verses have gone missing; but this is the first time am coming across a completely new verse.

This is the commonly used verse:
स्वभावं एश नारिनाम इह दूषनम | अतो अर्थान प्रमाद्यन्ति प्रमदासुविपाश्रित: ||

But you have given completely new verses as below (so please provide the source from where you got them):

happhindu, I found this verse also:

स्वभाव एष नारीणां नराणाम् इह दूषणम्
अतो अर्थान् न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु विपश्चित: (Vipaschithaha)

Now the meaning slightly changes...!!!:)

To clarify - the sanskrit verse quoted by hh is incorrect; the verse should read as:

स्वभाव एष नारीणां नराणाम् इह दूषणम्
अतो अर्थान् न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु विपश्चित:

or

स्वभाव एष नारीणां नराणामिह दूषणम्
अतोर्थान्न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु विपश्चित:
 
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hh, before give any sort of dhathu explanations, I will clarify cetain things:

Pramadha = woman; I have Apte's dictionary with me and it is your turn to refer now. You have mentioned pramadha as:

'प्रमदासु = pramadaasu = makes slave to pramada (pramada = mad / intoxicated)'

If you indeed know sanskrit you should have noticed the difference between न् in अर्थान्

It is not
न but न् ; न = न् + अ....!

hence in the second line of the verse which I had provided, it is joined with the second
न to give अतोर्थान्न. It is elementary.

Its naarinaam not, naranaam (unless we are talking shri Nara :D ). And where did i miss it or ignore it?
Your verse is incorrect. It should have 'Naranaam' in it to complete the meaning.

If you care to notice, in the link in which you have provided, you will see that the verse contains 'Naraanam'. So much for your observation.

Also the last word of the verse is विपश्चित: not विपाश्रित:


विपाश्रित: - I have already given how this is formed. विपश्चित: has a different meaning. Please lookup a dictionary for the meaning to know the difference.

..... provide the allegorical-derivation, and i will have nothing to question you about. If you don't do that, your interpretations will be considered fanciful.
This is just boring. Please look up my previous post where I had given the explanations.

Your literal translation itself is wrong. You simply copied the translation from the scribd source without ascertaining its credibility.

If you are calling my bluff, I welcome it. :)
 
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Brahma Rishi vishwamitra's tapas were broken by women.
Considering the recent hot news about a 75 year old man who was in a respectable position- in Andhra, fortunately Manu is not here. Otherwise, he must have written something which would have attracted women's wrath. I remember famous writer Sujata. For a question "why a girl looks beautiful and attractive?". He answered "the girl looks beautiful because of her parents. She looks attractive because of your harmones".
:)
Cheers!

PVR,

Does every man wear his head on his pants so loose that he is tempted by every woman?

I know my gurus well. They are brahmacharis. Not sure if its good to stereotype all men. Some cud take it as an insult.

And please note it took a great deal of effort to break the tapas of vishwamitra. Not all men are of 'loose character'.

And in manusmrithi we are talking of 'learned men', not common men.
 
Also प्रमदासु is a case form of प्रमदा which indicates 'in' or 'about' - locative case.
 
hh, before give any sort of dhathu explanations, I will clarify cetain things:

Pramadha = woman; I have Apte's dictionary with me and it is your turn to refer now. You have mentioned pramadha as:

'प्रमदासु = pramadaasu = makes slave to pramada (pramada = mad / intoxicated)'

If you indeed know sanskrit you should have noticed the difference between न् in अर्थान्

It is not
न but न् ; न = न् + अ....!

hence in the second line of the verse which I had provided, it is joined with the second
न to give अतोर्थान्न. It is elementary.

Your verse is incorrect. It should have 'Naranaam' in it to complete the meaning.

If you care to notice, in the link in which you have provided, you will see that the verse contains 'Naraanam'. So much for your observation.

Also the last word of the verse is विपश्चित: not विपाश्रत:


विपाश्रत: - I have already given how this is formed. विपश्चित: has a different meaning. Please lookup a dictionary for the meaning to know the difference.

This is just boring. Please look up my previous post where I had given the explanations.

Your literal translation itself is wrong. You simply copied the translation from the scribd source without ascertaining its credibility.

If you are calling my bluff, I welcome it. :)




Saptha,

Instead of discussing so much - can you PLEASE give me the source of the verse.

The scribd may be wrong. But that's the sanskrit text i saw on the pandey book as well. And its this: स्वभाव एष नारीणां नराणाम् इह दूषणम् | अतो अर्थान् न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु विपश्चित: ||

Since the scribd source is a PDF file, am using the google translit to type and then transfer on this forum. So, if i have made mistakes, you are more than welcome to point them out.

Yes i missed typing the naraanam previously from the source. And its not making a vast difference to the meaning. It just means women's nature is faulty to the man, instead of simply saying woman's nature is faulty.

Now all i am asking is for this:

1) First, the source of your verse.
2) The dhatu-derivations (if they apply) to the verses.
3) After you have derived the sound meanings, then explain how your interpretation fits in.

So, first can you please give me the source of your verse. How do i know if it is credible or not?

As regards the translation, its the common one found in all sources (sacredtexts.com, hinduwebsite.com, etc). All i have done is to break down the words, provide meanings for each of them and recontruct their meaning: http://www.tamilbrahmins.com/philosophy-scriptures/2222-purushasuktam-varna-5.html#post38425

If my gurus were able to derive an allegorical meaning out of these verses, as mentioned in the previous post, i wud have definitely shared it here.

But they are not able to connect the verses with the rest of the text. If you are able to do it, and if you able to provide the allegorical derivation, then please go ahead and do that first. We can take the discussion from there on.

Am tired of asking for the allegorical derivations to substantiate your fancy interpretations; and all these counter arguments just to make you give the basis of those interpretations. If you had done that right at the start, what was the need for us to fill up these pages at all.

First, please provide the source of your verse.
 
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Ah, now you are trivialising your mistakes... :)

Yes i missed typing the naraanam previously from the source. And its not making a vast difference to the meaning
Is it so? I wonder now...

It just means women's nature is faulty to the man, instead of simply saying woman's nature is faulty.
Both have different meanings. If you do not see them, I cannot explain anymore.

So, first can you please give me the source of your verse. How do i know if it is credible or not?
Your source is my source....

Ok, now what about pramadha?????

Did the 'na' come into picture now?

And the 'vipashrithaha' been pushed into oblivion?

Since the scribd source is a PDF file, am using the google translit to type and then transfer on this forum.
The meaning you have copied is from scribd itself. You have not given any meaning on your own. The literal meanings you gave were in such a manner so as to fit in with the meaning of the scribd document.

And you are now insisting that the scribd translation is original.

Where does it say that the nature of women is to seduce men? To be more precise which word means 'seduction'?

Where does it say that wise men are not guarded? Which word means 'guarded' or 'not guarded'?

Where does it say that men should not LIVE near women? Which word means 'live near women'?

You had assumed all these in your previous posts.

Before I can provide any more details, you should satisfy my queries as to your interpretation. I am following your method -'Let us take this step by step'.
 
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Ah, now you are trivialising your mistakes...
Nope am not. I missed typing naraanam and i am accepting it.
Though i had missed typing naraanam in the first post, you went ahead and gave your interpretation.

Is it so? I wonder now...
If it is making a diff, please go ahead and explain how.

Both have different meanings. If you do not see them, I cannot explain anymore.
If you think they have diff meanings, please go ahead and explain how.

If one makes a stand alone statement that a woman's nature is faulty or if one says that a woman's nature is faulty for men, the final meaning is somewhere still about the same (in faulting the woman).

Except that, thankgod, the verse does not mention the general nature of women as faulty to her daughters, mothers, (females). It is more specific that is faulty for males.

Your source is my source....
The one i provided mentions this one:
स्वभाव एष नारीणां नराणाम् इह दूषणम् |
अतो अर्थान् न
प्रमाद्यन्तिप्रमदासु विपश्चित: ||

What is your source for this verse:
स्वभाव एष नारीणां नराणामिह दूषणम्
अतोर्थान्न प्रमाध्यन्ति प्रमदासु विपश्चित:

The 2nd line differs in both.

Ok, now what about pramadha?????

Did the 'na' come into picture now?

And the 'vipashrithaha' been pushed into oblivion?
Nope not pushing anything into oblivion.

But i already gave the pramada, na and the vipashritaha (vipashrita: ) here: http://www.tamilbrahmins.com/philosophy-scriptures/2222-purushasuktam-varna-5.html#post38425

Saptha, i have no idea why we are going around the circles. Ok, now that you have typed out the verse exactly, can you now go ahead and provide the basis for your interpretation.

i shd have used a sanskrit translit to type out instead of the hindi translit. I did not provide the devnagari script for the other verses because i am not able to get the maatras right using the hindi translit. If you have a sanskrit tranlit, that helps type out sanskrit words, please help me by providing it.

The meaning you have copied is from scribd itself. You have not given any meaning on your own. The literal meanings you gave were in such a manner so as to fit in with the meaning of the scribd document.
But the meaning i gave is diff from the scribd source. Scribd did not give the meanings of the individual words, nor how the sentence has been constructed.

I don't need my english construct to fit the meaning of the scribd document (which anyways is diff from the scribd doc): http://www.tamilbrahmins.com/philosophy-scriptures/2222-purushasuktam-varna-5.html#post38425 Except that my english translation needs be be tweaked up to make it sound clear, polished.

Anyways i don't see what's wrong in mentioning the scribd translation. What we are doing is to find your basis of interpreting the verses the way you have (not the scribd doc). (Btw, the scribd doc is the same as the saced-texts.com translation).

And you are now insisting that the scribd translation is original.
When did i insist that the scribd translation is original. I already gave my translation (which is diff from the scribd doc) here: http://www.tamilbrahmins.com/philosophy-scriptures/2222-purushasuktam-varna-5.html#post38425

Where does it say that the nature of women is to seduce men? To be more precise which word means 'seduction'?
Yes, there is no word in that verse which alludes to seduction. The seduction part comes in the verse immediately next to it (verse 2.214) mentioning kama and the verse following it (verse 2.215) which mentions indriyagramo (vulgar senses). Look like the translator took all the 3 verses into consideration while translating.

Which is why those 3 verses (2.213, 2.214 and 2.215) are considered a set of interpolations.

Also note that the verses preceding and subsequent to that set of verses refers to the wife of the guru. It wud mean that the verses were added / written to keep adult students away from the wife of the guru.
(to me, it is sort of insulting to mark women in general as faulty for men, instead of addressing the erring parties or tempted parties in a better manner).

Perhaps in Manu's time students used to or tried to violate their guru's bed (which then wud also explain why there is also a punishment prescribed for it). Also note that manusmrithi is not the only smrithi that prescribes punishment for this particular crime. Anyways, instead of getting distracted with these things (we'll come to this later), lets just focus (for now) on that set of 3 verses.

Where does it say that wise men are not guarded? Which word means 'guarded' or 'not guarded'?

Where does it say that men should not LIVE near women? Which word means 'live near women'?

You had assumed all these in your previous posts.
Again, i already gave my translation: http://www.tamilbrahmins.com/philosophy-scriptures/2222-purushasuktam-varna-5.html#post38425
I did not use the word not guarded.

However, the scribd translator seems to have taken pramaadin into consideration (pramaadin = negligent / incautious). Plus the scribd translator (again) seems to have taken the two verses immediately after the first one (verse 2.213) to provide a scenario, since the verse 2.215 mentions विविक्तासनो viviktaasano or seated alone (vivikta = alone / solitary / isolated, aasano = seated).

Aashritaha refers to dwelling or living (and in this sentence it is about naaris, women).

We need not agree that the scribd / sacredtexts.com translation is right. They have not derived any allegorical meaning out of the verses, and have only given more or less the literal translation.

What you and i are trying to do, is to make you give the basis of your interpretation.

Before I can provide any more details, you should satisfy my queries as to your interpretation. I am following your method -'Let us take this step by step'.
First, i gave no interpretation. Only the literal meaning.

You gave your (own) interpretation. And i am not the only person who found your interpretations fanciful.

If you want to substantiate your interpretation, please provide the basis for it.
 
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Saptha,

Am not able to type out the verse 2.214 using hindi translit, esp the word hrautpatam after pramada.

So please use the sanskrit text for the 3 verses here (verse 2.213, 2.214 and 2.215) in this while providing the basis for your interpretation: Manu Smriti - Sanskrit Text With English Translation

You had mentioned that tehre are other ways to interpret allegorical meanings other than dhatu derivations, so please go ahead and provide the basis for your interpretion of those 3 verses in whatever gramatically acceptable ways you can.

Forget the scribd / sacred-texts.com translation, we are not bothered about it (for now). What we are looking for is the basis of your (own) interpretation.

Am mentioning the verses in english with the interpretation (in blue) you have given (so please go ahead and clarify. I won't say anything to you, from here on. So no worries. Whatever you provide, i will mention to my gurus and only provide feedback.):


1) Verse 2.213:
स्वभाव एष नारीणां नराणाम् इह दूषणम् |अतो अर्थान् न प्रमाद्यन्तिप्रमदासु विपश्चित: ||

Your interpretations:
a) My interpretation: This refers to the sookshmam of women i.e., they have the power - mental and physical (beauty) which can captivate even the most learned of men. Therefore, this verse, both praises the charm/intellect of women, and at the same time advices the menfolk to be wary.

b) First he says that there is an inherent nature. What is this? It is not any individual character the verse talks about. Rather, it is about a general nature which is common to women. Since it does not indicate anything here, we have no clue as to that 'inherent nature' which is 'contaminating'. (Note, he does not say that women are dhooshanam!).


2) Verse 2.214
Avidvansam alam lokay vidvansam api va puna: | pramada hrautpatam naytum kaama-krodhvashaanugam||

Scribd / Sacred-texts.com translation: For women are able to lead astray in (this) world not only a fool, but even a learned man, and (to make) him a slave of desire and anger.

Your interpretation:
My interpretation: This, if you analyze closely, demeans menfolk; that men are of such weak disposition that, irrespective of their knowledge, they can become slave to their desires. How is this discriminatory?!

3) Verse 2.215

Maatra svasra duhitra va na viviktaasno bhavet| Balvan indriyagramo vidvansam api karshati ||


Scribd / Sacred-texts.com translation: One should not sit in a lonely place with one's mother, sister, or daughter; for the senses are powerful, and master even a learned man.

Your interpretation:
My interpretation: When a person is in the company of women alone, he cannot but succumb to his passions or emotions. Emotions/passions here mentioned are not sexual, rather they indicate that man can be persuaded either as a son/brother/husband. Is it not meaningful enough?! Most men are kind to their sisters than brothers.

Aside: Freudian theory relates the attraction of sons to their mothers and daughters to their fathers keeping sex as the pivotal criteria. and Freud is much acknowledged!!!
 
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