namaste Nara.
This has reference to your post #172.
Let us look at what the Wiki article says, "this argument may have been wrongly attributed to Epicurus by Lactantius..." You take a "may have been" to a status of undisputed fact.
The full Wiki quote is (bullets added):
This type of trilemma argument (God is omnipotent, God is good, but Evil exists) was one favoured by the ancient Greek skeptics,
• and this argument may have been wrongly attributed to Epicurus by Lactantius, who, from his Christian perspective, regarded Epicurus as an atheist.[2]
• According to Reinhold F. Glei, it is settled that the argument of theodicy is from an academical source which is not only not epicurean, but even anti-epicurean.[3]
• The earliest extant version of this trilemma appears in the writings of the skeptic Sextus Empiricus.[4]
The time of Epicurus is 341-270 BCE, and the time of Sextus Empiricus is c160-210 CE). If the earliest extant version of this trilemma appears in the writings of the skeptic Sextus Empiricus, how can it be even attributed to Epicurus?
Further evidence is given in the Wiki article on trilemma:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trilemma
that the quote is "as summarised by David Hume" and that "Although traditionally ascribed to Epicurus, it has been suggested that it may actually be the work of an early skeptic writer, possibly Carneades.[3]"
I have also given a second link in my post #162, which speaks nothing about the quote:
http://theosophytrust.org/tlodocs/articlesTeacher.php?d=Epicurus.htm&p=41
You asked me:
Next, on what basis did you come to the conclusion that if the quote was not by Epicurus, then it must be from a crackpot?
• I was reading this post before I found out about the quote being wrongly attributed to Epicurus:
http://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=62144&postcount=5
• Notice the 'enhancement' given to the quote from the version "As recorded by Lactantius:" in the Wiki article http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Epicureanism
the way David Hume summarised it here:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trilemma
and what you quote in your signature, it is certainly like an urban legend, deliberately worked up on the Internet--poor Epicurus!
Thirdly, in a discussion on the validity of the quote, ambiguity regarding who the quote is attributed to is irrelevant.
• I consider the quote as having loaded questions, similar to the question "Have you stopped beating your wife?"
• Further I have discussed the possible answers in the light of free-will and with the analogy of a novelist, and these are satisfactory answers for me.
Welcome to skepticism dear Saidevo. "I don't know" is a very good start.
• I am not averse to logical skepticism that admits all possibilities and realitiees--physical and metaphysical. In this case, as I said, I don't personally know the answer "at this level of my spiritual advancement". Notice that I also said that I believe in the "religious and spiritual paradigm given by Self-realized gurus for the contradiction".
I notice that you have skipped the penultimate paragraph of my post #167, wherein I have asked about how the atheists, based on science, would rationalize the evil and suffering prevalent in the world. You said in post #71 that The "spiritual" feelings we experience are product of neurons. Why not say something on that line about evil and suffering too?
I hope our friend Yamaka may come up with an answer from his field of specialization.
This has reference to your post #172.
Let us look at what the Wiki article says, "this argument may have been wrongly attributed to Epicurus by Lactantius..." You take a "may have been" to a status of undisputed fact.
The full Wiki quote is (bullets added):
This type of trilemma argument (God is omnipotent, God is good, but Evil exists) was one favoured by the ancient Greek skeptics,
• and this argument may have been wrongly attributed to Epicurus by Lactantius, who, from his Christian perspective, regarded Epicurus as an atheist.[2]
• According to Reinhold F. Glei, it is settled that the argument of theodicy is from an academical source which is not only not epicurean, but even anti-epicurean.[3]
• The earliest extant version of this trilemma appears in the writings of the skeptic Sextus Empiricus.[4]
The time of Epicurus is 341-270 BCE, and the time of Sextus Empiricus is c160-210 CE). If the earliest extant version of this trilemma appears in the writings of the skeptic Sextus Empiricus, how can it be even attributed to Epicurus?
Further evidence is given in the Wiki article on trilemma:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trilemma
that the quote is "as summarised by David Hume" and that "Although traditionally ascribed to Epicurus, it has been suggested that it may actually be the work of an early skeptic writer, possibly Carneades.[3]"
I have also given a second link in my post #162, which speaks nothing about the quote:
http://theosophytrust.org/tlodocs/articlesTeacher.php?d=Epicurus.htm&p=41
You asked me:
Next, on what basis did you come to the conclusion that if the quote was not by Epicurus, then it must be from a crackpot?
• I was reading this post before I found out about the quote being wrongly attributed to Epicurus:
http://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=62144&postcount=5
• Notice the 'enhancement' given to the quote from the version "As recorded by Lactantius:" in the Wiki article http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Epicureanism
the way David Hume summarised it here:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trilemma
and what you quote in your signature, it is certainly like an urban legend, deliberately worked up on the Internet--poor Epicurus!
Thirdly, in a discussion on the validity of the quote, ambiguity regarding who the quote is attributed to is irrelevant.
• I consider the quote as having loaded questions, similar to the question "Have you stopped beating your wife?"
• Further I have discussed the possible answers in the light of free-will and with the analogy of a novelist, and these are satisfactory answers for me.
Welcome to skepticism dear Saidevo. "I don't know" is a very good start.
• I am not averse to logical skepticism that admits all possibilities and realitiees--physical and metaphysical. In this case, as I said, I don't personally know the answer "at this level of my spiritual advancement". Notice that I also said that I believe in the "religious and spiritual paradigm given by Self-realized gurus for the contradiction".
I notice that you have skipped the penultimate paragraph of my post #167, wherein I have asked about how the atheists, based on science, would rationalize the evil and suffering prevalent in the world. You said in post #71 that The "spiritual" feelings we experience are product of neurons. Why not say something on that line about evil and suffering too?
I hope our friend Yamaka may come up with an answer from his field of specialization.
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