Palindrome,
I have a doubt - Assume that a brahmin "B" lived some 1000 years ago. And assume that he had two or three brahmin wives, and beget many children from them. And by chance or not, he also married two NB women, both from different demographies, and beget many children from them. Assume that the children from B and NB live separately and have no connection from the next generation onwards. Also the children from the NB wives marry NBs after that
Fast forward a thousand years, without knowing the backdrop, if you were to sample a gene from the traditional "B" child and, by chance, a gene from the now unconnected NB child, there is a probability that some of the genes might match, and you would probably conclude that they were intrlinked somewhere before. But this does not always infer that the "B" gene has been derived from an NB gene
I know there are a lot of assumptions, but is this a possibility?
I am asking this not to belittle any communities, but just to ascertain if there are windows of uncertainity that cannot be proved by gene testing.